Which of the following clients would the nurse question an order for labetalol 50 mg PO?
28 year old woman with pregnancy-induced hypertension
Pizza delivery driver with 5 year history of smoking
Client with a history of uncontrolled asthma
55 year old male who had a myocardial infarction 2 days ago
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because labetalol is a safe and effective medication for treating hypertension in pregnancy. Labetalol is a beta-blocker that lowers blood pressure by reducing the heart rate and the force of contraction. It does not affect the blood flow to the placenta or the fetus.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because labetalol is not contraindicated for smokers. However, smoking is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease and should be discouraged by the nurse. Smoking can increase blood pressure, heart rate, and the risk of blood clots.
Choice C reason: This is correct because labetalol is contraindicated for clients with a history of uncontrolled asthma. Labetalol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can block the beta-2 receptors in the lungs and cause bronchoconstriction. This can worsen asthma symptoms and trigger an asthma attack.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because labetalol is a suitable medication for clients who had a myocardial infarction. Labetalol can prevent further damage to the heart muscle by reducing the oxygen demand and the workload of the heart. It can also prevent arrhythmias and angina.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["150"]
Explanation
To calculate the IV pump rate for the 0.9% sodium chloride 1,200 mL IV to infuse over 8 hours, we can use the following formula:
IV pump rate (mL/hr) = Total volume (mL) / Time (hr)
Using the given values:
Total volume = 1,200 mL
Time = 8 hours
Plugging these values into the formula:
IV pump rate = 1,200 mL / 8 hr
IV pump rate = 150 mL/hr
So, the nurse should set the IV pump to deliver 150 mL/hr to infuse the 1,200 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride over 8 hours.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Atenolol is a beta blocker that lowers blood pressure and heart rate. The nurse should hold atenolol for this client because the client's heart rate is already low (52 beats per minute), and giving atenolol could cause bradycardia (slow heart rate), which can lead to dizziness, fainting, or heart failure. The nurse should notify the provider and monitor the client's vital signs and cardiac rhythm.
Choice B reason: Captopril is an ACE inhibitor that lowers blood pressure and prevents kidney damage. The nurse should not hold captopril for this client because the client's blood pressure is still high (138/90 mmHg), and captopril could help lower it to the target range. The nurse should administer captopril as prescribed and monitor the client's blood pressure and renal function.
Choice C reason: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that prevents blood clots and reduces the risk of stroke. The nurse should not hold warfarin for this client because the client's INR (a measure of blood clotting time) is within the therapeutic range (2.0 to 3.0), and warfarin could help prevent post-operative complications such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism. The nurse should administer warfarin as prescribed and monitor the client's INR and bleeding signs.
Choice D reason: Glipizide is not a medication for this client. Glipizide is an oral hypoglycemic agent that lowers blood sugar levels in people with diabetes. This client does not have diabetes and does not need glipizide. The nurse should check the medication order and the client's medical history and clarify any discrepancies with the provider.
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