Which of the following is an FDA-approved indication for fentanyl?
Management of chronic pain
Management of congestion
Management of allergic rhinitis
Management of fever
The Correct Answer is A
A. Fentanyl is a potent mu-opioid receptor agonist indicated for the management of chronic, severe pain. The transdermal system provides continuous systemic delivery of the drug over 72 hours. It is reserved for opioid-tolerant patients requiring around-the-clock long-term opioid treatment.
B. This agent does not possess sympathomimetic activity or alpha-adrenergic agonist properties required to reduce nasal mucosal swelling. It lacks the pharmacological profile of a decongestant like pseudoephedrine. It is not indicated or used for the management of congestion.
C. Fentanyl has no therapeutic effect on the inflammatory or histaminergic pathways associated with allergic rhinitis. It does not act as an H1-receptor antagonist or a nasal corticosteroid. It is not a clinical intervention for seasonal or perennial allergies.
D. Opioid analgesics do not inhibit the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center through the suppression of prostaglandin E2 synthesis. Fentanyl lacks the antipyretic properties found in cyclooxygenase inhibitors like acetaminophen or ibuprofen. It is never indicated for the management of fever.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Niacin is the generic name for nicotinic acid or vitamin B3, used as an antilipemic agent. It inhibits the peripheral mobilization of free fatty acids to reduce hepatic triglyceride synthesis. It is not the active antimicrobial component of Macrobid.
B. Cephamycin represents a specific subclass of beta-lactam antibiotics, such as cefoxitin, derived from Streptomyces species. These agents possess a methoxy group at the 7-alpha position of the cephem nucleus. This classification does not correspond to the brand Macrobid.
C. Cetirizine is a second-generation H1-receptor antagonist used for the treatment of allergic rhinitis. It works by selectively inhibiting peripheral histamine receptors to reduce inflammatory symptoms. It lacks the antibacterial properties required for the treatment of urinary infections.
D. Nitrofurantoin is the generic name for Macrobid, a nitrofuran antibiotic used for cystitis. It is reduced by bacterial flavoproteins to reactive intermediates that damage ribosomal proteins and DNA. The Macrobid formulation specifically contains both macrocrystals and monohydrate forms.
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
A. Edema is typically managed with diuretic agents that inhibit sodium reabsorption in the renal tubules. Hydroxyzine is an H1-receptor antagonist and does not possess the pharmacological properties required to mobilize interstitial fluid. It is not an FDA-approved treatment for edema.
B. Status asthmaticus is a life-threatening medical emergency requiring systemic corticosteroids and bronchodilators. Hydroxyzine is contraindicated in early pregnancy and not indicated for acute respiratory distress. It lacks the beta-2 adrenergic agonist activity necessary to reverse severe bronchospasm in asthma.
C. Pruritus due to histamine-mediated reactions is a primary FDA-approved indication for hydroxyzine. As a first-generation antihistamine, it competitively blocks H1 receptors to alleviate itching associated with dermatological conditions. It is specifically indicated for allergic conditions such as chronic urticaria.
D. Anxiety is an FDA-approved labeled indication for hydroxyzine hydrochloride. It exerts anxiolytic effects by acting as an antagonist at the 5-HT2A serotonin receptor and H1 receptors in the central nervous system. This results in significant sedative and calming properties.
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