Which of the following is an FDA-approved labeled indication for levofloxacin? Select all that apply.
Complicated urinary tract infection
Tetanus
Herpes Zoster
Community acquired pneumonia
Correct Answer : A,D
A. Levofloxacin is indicated for complicated urinary tract infections, including pyelonephritis, caused by susceptible Gram-negative bacilli like Escherichia coli. It achieves high renal concentrations, effectively inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase 4. This bactericidal action is essential for treating deep-seated renal parenchyma infections.
B. Tetanus is caused by the toxin tetanospasmin from Clostridium tetani, requiring metronidazole or penicillin G for antimicrobial therapy. Levofloxacin is not an FDA-approved treatment for this neurological condition. The management primarily involves wound debridement, antitoxin administration, and supportive care for muscle spasms.
C. Herpes zoster is a viral infection resulting from the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus within sensory ganglia. Levofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic and possesses no inhibitory activity against viral DNA polymerase. Antiviral agents like acyclovir or valacyclovir are the standard pharmacological interventions for this condition.
D. This agent is FDA-approved for community-acquired pneumonia due to its broad-spectrum activity against Streptococcus pneumoniae and atypical pathogens. It provides excellent lung tissue penetration and inhibits the supercoiling of bacterial DNA. The question stem targets specific labeled indications, which include this respiratory infection.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Upper respiratory tract infections are frequently viral in origin, rendering this sulfonamide combination ineffective. While it covers some respiratory pathogens, it is not a primary labeled indication for general upper respiratory infections. Clinical use is typically reserved for specific bacterial complications.
B. Constipation associated with opioid use results from activation of mu-opioid receptors in the gastrointestinal tract. This antimicrobial agent lacks any pharmacological activity on enteric motility or opioid receptors. It is exclusively an anti-infective and has no role in managing bowel dysfunction.
C. Urinary tract infections are a primary labeled indication for this synergistic combination. Sulfamethoxazole inhibits dihydropteroate synthase, while trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. This sequential blockade of folic acid synthesis provides potent bactericidal activity against common uropathogens like Escherichia coli.
D. Headache symptoms from a common cold are typically managed with analgesics such as acetaminophen or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Sulfamethoxazole with trimethoprim does not possess analgesic or antipyretic properties. It is not indicated for the symptomatic relief of viral upper respiratory syndromes.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Rizatriptan is the active pharmaceutical ingredient for the brand Maxalt. While it belongs to the same selective 5-hydroxytryptamine 1B and 1D receptor agonist class, it is not the chemical constituent of Imitrex. It possesses a different pharmacokinetic profile.
B. Almotriptan is the generic name for the brand Axert. This compound is indicated for the acute treatment of migraine with or without aura in adults. It is a separate molecular entity from the drug requested in the question stem.
C. Sumatriptan is the generic name for Imitrex, the first triptan developed for clinical use. It acts as a selective agonist at vascular 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D receptors. This binding induces cranial vessel vasoconstriction and inhibits the release of proinflammatory neuropeptides.
D. Eletriptan is marketed under the brand name Relpax. It is a second-generation triptan used for migraine abortive therapy. It is not the active ingredient in Imitrex. Its metabolism and bioavailability differ significantly from those of sumatriptan.
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