Which of the following types of anemia occurs as a result of a malfunction of bone marrow to produce new red blood cells?
Iron deficiency
Pernicious
Sickle cell
Aplastic
Hemolytic
The Correct Answer is D
A. Iron deficiency: Iron deficiency anemia results from inadequate iron for hemoglobin synthesis, leading to small, pale red blood cells. The bone marrow itself is usually functioning normally, but the substrate for RBC production is insufficient.
B. Pernicious: Pernicious anemia is caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, often due to intrinsic factor deficiency. While red blood cell production is affected, the underlying problem is nutritional and not a direct malfunction of the bone marrow.
C. Sickle cell: Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder causing abnormal hemoglobin formation, leading to sickle-shaped red blood cells. The bone marrow can produce red blood cells, but they are structurally defective and have a shortened lifespan.
D. Aplastic: Aplastic anemia occurs when the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. This primary marrow dysfunction leads to pancytopenia and is directly related to impaired hematopoiesis.
E. Hemolytic: Hemolytic anemia results from premature destruction of red blood cells, either inherited or acquired. The bone marrow may respond by increasing RBC production, so the marrow itself is not the primary site of dysfunction.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Infection: Infections typically present with elevated white blood cell counts or changes in differential, such as a left shift. Mr. Brown’s leukocyte count and differential are within normal limits, making infection an unlikely cause of his anemia and fatigue.
B. An iron-poor diet: Mr. Brown’s diet of primarily tea and toast is deficient in iron, which is essential for hemoglobin synthesis. Iron deficiency leads to decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit, resulting in fatigue and pallor. This nutritional deficiency aligns with his laboratory findings.
C. Thrombocytopenia: Thrombocytopenia involves a low platelet count and increases the risk of bleeding. Mr. Brown’s platelet count is normal, so decreased platelets are not contributing to his anemia or fatigue.
D. Drug-induced hemolysis: Hemolytic anemia from medications would typically present with elevated reticulocyte count, jaundice, and possibly dark urine. There is no history of recent drug exposure or hemolytic signs in this case.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Curable with antivirals: Rheumatoid arthritis is not caused by a viral infection, so antiviral medications have no curative effect. Treatment focuses on managing inflammation and preventing joint damage rather than eradicating a pathogen.
B. An autoimmune disease: Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disorder in which the immune system mistakenly attacks the synovial membranes of joints. This leads to inflammation, pain, stiffness, and progressive joint deformity over time.
C. A complication of rheumatic fever: Rheumatic fever can cause rheumatic heart disease, but it is distinct from rheumatoid arthritis. Rheumatoid arthritis is not a sequela of streptococcal infection.
D. Related to repetitive movements: Conditions caused by repetitive movements, such as osteoarthritis or tendonitis, are mechanical rather than autoimmune. Rheumatoid arthritis arises from immune system dysfunction rather than repetitive stress on joints.
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