Which patient is the nurse most concerned with developing a subdural hematoma following an injury that resulted with a blow to the head?
The 36-year-old patient who has a history of migraine headaches.
The 56-year-old patient who is taking an antihypertensive medication.
The 76-year-old patient who is taking an anticoagulant.
The 16-year-old football player who suffered a concussion
The Correct Answer is C
A. Migraine history does not increase the risk of bleeding or hematoma formation following head trauma.
B. Antihypertensive medications manage blood pressure but do not directly increase the risk of bleeding into the brain.
C. Older adults, especially those on anticoagulants, are at higher risk of developing subdural hematomas due to increased cerebral atrophy and impaired clotting, which makes even minor head trauma potentially life-threatening.
D. While concussions are concerning, a young, otherwise healthy individual is at lower risk of developing a subdural hematoma compared to an elderly patient on anticoagulants.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Bladder distention is a common trigger of autonomic dysreflexia, but the immediate priority is to reduce blood pressure by positioning the patient.
B. Antihypertensive medication may be necessary, but nonpharmacologic interventions such as positioning and removing the triggering stimulus should be done first.
C. Placing the client in a high-Fowler’s position is the first action to lower blood pressure by promoting venous pooling in the lower extremities, thereby reducing cerebral blood pressure and minimizing the risk of stroke.
D. Heart rate monitoring is part of the assessment but does not take priority over immediately addressing the dangerously high blood pressure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Neurogenic shock is a common complication of spinal cord injuries above T6, including T4, due to disruption of sympathetic pathways causing hypotension, bradycardia, and vasodilation.
B. Malignant hyperthermia is a rare genetic reaction to certain anesthetics, unrelated to spinal cord injury.
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a reaction to antipsychotic drugs, not related to spinal cord injury.
D. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, unrelated to spinal cord injury.
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