Which range is the targeted therapeutic adult dosage range of theophylline?

1 to 5 mcg/mL

30 to 40 mcg/mL

50 to 60 mcg/mL

10 to 20 mcg/mL

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: The 1 to 5 mcg/mL range is too low for theophylline’s therapeutic effect. Theophylline, a methylxanthine, requires 10-20 mcg/mL to achieve bronchodilation by inhibiting phosphodiesterase and increasing cyclic AMP. Levels below this range are ineffective for asthma or COPD management, risking suboptimal control.

Choice B reason: The 30 to 40 mcg/mL range is toxic for theophylline. Levels above 20 mcg/mL can cause serious side effects like seizures, arrhythmias, or nausea due to its narrow therapeutic index. Therapeutic monitoring ensures levels stay within 10-20 mcg/mL for safe and effective bronchodilation.

Choice C reason: The 50 to 60 mcg/mL range is far above theophylline’s therapeutic range, leading to severe toxicity, including life-threatening arrhythmias or convulsions. Theophylline’s efficacy for airway relaxation occurs at 10-20 mcg/mL, and such high levels are dangerous, requiring immediate intervention to reduce toxicity risks.

Choice D reason: The 10 to 20 mcg/mL range is the targeted therapeutic range for theophylline in adults. Within this range, theophylline inhibits phosphodiesterase, increasing cyclic AMP, promoting bronchodilation, and relieving asthma or COPD symptoms. Monitoring ensures efficacy while minimizing toxicity risks like tachycardia or seizures.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: A higher dose of rifampin is not necessary due to oral contraceptives. Rifampin induces hepatic CYP450 enzymes, increasing contraceptive metabolism and reducing their efficacy, not vice versa. Dosing adjustments are not required for rifampin, which remains effective for tuberculosis treatment.

Choice B reason: The incidence of adverse effects is not significantly increased by combining rifampin with oral contraceptives. Rifampin’s side effects, like hepatotoxicity, are independent of contraceptives. The primary concern is rifampin’s induction of contraceptive metabolism, reducing their effectiveness, not an increase in adverse effects.

Choice C reason: Rifampin does not increase the risk of thrombophlebitis in women. Oral contraceptives may increase thromboembolism risk, but rifampin’s enzyme induction reduces contraceptive levels, potentially lowering this risk. Thrombophlebitis is not a known side effect of rifampin, making this statement incorrect.

Choice D reason: Rifampin, a CYP450 enzyme inducer, accelerates the metabolism of oral contraceptives, reducing their plasma levels and effectiveness. This can lead to breakthrough ovulation and unintended pregnancy. Patients should use alternative contraception, like barrier methods, during rifampin therapy to ensure reliable pregnancy prevention.

A. Albuterol is considered “long-acting” and salmeterol is considered “short-acting.” B. Albuterol is considered “short-acting” and salmeterol is considered “long-acting.” C. Salmeterol’s effects last for 3 to 4 hours, and albuterol has an extended duration of action up to 12 hours. D. Because of the onset of action, albuterol should not be used during an acute attack of asthma, but instead, salmeterol should be used.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA), with effects lasting 4-6 hours, while salmeterol is a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA), lasting up to 12 hours. This statement reverses their durations, making it incorrect, as albuterol is used for acute relief, not maintenance.

Choice B reason: Albuterol, a SABA, acts within minutes and lasts 4-6 hours, ideal for acute asthma relief. Salmeterol, a LABA, has a slower onset (20-30 minutes) and lasts 12 hours, used for maintenance. This pharmacodynamic difference in duration makes this the correct statement.

Choice C reason: Salmeterol’s effects last up to 12 hours, not 3-4 hours, and albuterol’s duration is 4-6 hours, not 12 hours. This statement inaccurately describes their pharmacodynamic profiles, as salmeterol is long-acting and albuterol is short-acting, making it incorrect.

Choice D reason: Albuterol’s rapid onset (within minutes) makes it ideal for acute asthma attacks, while salmeterol’s slow onset (20-30 minutes) makes it unsuitable for acute relief. This statement is incorrect, as albuterol, not salmeterol, is the first-line rescue medication for asthma exacerbations.

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Which range is the targeted therapeutic adult dosage range of theophylline?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is counseling a woman who will be starting rifampin. The patient is currently taking oral contraceptives. Which statement is true regarding rifampin therapy for this patient?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which statement describes a pharmacodynamic difference between albuterol and salmeterol?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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