The nurse is reviewing the culture results of a patient with an infection, and notes that the culture indicates a gram-positive organism. Which generation of cephalosporin is most appropriate for this type of infection?
Third-generation
First-generation
Fourth-generation
Second-generation
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Third-generation cephalosporins, like ceftriaxone, are effective against gram-negative bacteria and some gram-positive organisms but are not the primary choice for gram-positive infections. Their broader spectrum targets complex infections, while gram-positive organisms like Staphylococcus are better treated with first-generation cephalosporins, which are more specific.
Choice B reason: First-generation cephalosporins, like cefazolin, are most effective against gram-positive organisms, such as Staphylococcus and Streptococcus. They inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding proteins, providing excellent coverage for skin and soft tissue infections caused by gram-positive bacteria, making them the preferred choice.
Choice C reason: Fourth-generation cephalosporins, like cefepime, have a broad spectrum, including gram-negative and some gram-positive organisms. They are reserved for multidrug-resistant infections, not routine gram-positive infections, where first-generation cephalosporins are more targeted and sufficient, reducing the risk of resistance development.
Choice D reason: Second-generation cephalosporins, like cefuroxime, have balanced activity against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. They are less effective against gram-positive organisms compared to first-generation cephalosporins and are typically used for respiratory or mixed infections, not primarily for gram-positive infections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Theophylline, a methylxanthine, causes palpitations by increasing cyclic AMP through phosphodiesterase inhibition, stimulating cardiac beta-1 receptors. This can lead to tachycardia or arrhythmias, especially at high levels. Monitoring heart rate is critical due to theophylline’s narrow therapeutic index and potential for cardiovascular toxicity.
Choice B reason: Diarrhea is not a primary adverse effect of theophylline. Gastrointestinal upset, like nausea or vomiting, may occur due to gastric irritation, but diarrhea is less common. Theophylline’s main toxicities involve the cardiovascular and nervous systems, making palpitations a more significant concern.
Choice C reason: Drowsiness is not associated with theophylline, which acts as a CNS stimulant, potentially causing nervousness or insomnia. Its phosphodiesterase inhibition increases cyclic AMP, enhancing alertness, not sedation. Drowsiness is more linked to antihistamines, making this incorrect for theophylline monitoring.
Choice D reason: Bradycardia is not a typical theophylline effect. Theophylline stimulates the heart via beta-1 receptor activation, causing tachycardia or palpitations. Bradycardia may occur with other drugs, like beta-blockers, but theophylline’s sympathomimetic effects make palpitations a more relevant adverse effect to monitor.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Combining heparin and warfarin does not reduce adverse effects. Heparin risks bleeding and thrombocytopenia, while warfarin adds bleeding risk. The combination is used to bridge therapy until warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is therapeutic, not to minimize side effects, making this statement incorrect.
Choice B reason: Heparin provides immediate anticoagulation by enhancing antithrombin activity, inhibiting thrombin and factor Xa. Warfarin takes 3-5 days to achieve therapeutic INR by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Heparin bridges this delay, ensuring continuous anticoagulation during warfarin initiation, making this the correct response.
Choice C reason: Heparin and warfarin do not work synergistically. Heparin acts rapidly via antithrombin, while warfarin slowly inhibits clotting factor synthesis. Their effects are independent, used together to maintain anticoagulation during warfarin’s delayed onset, not to enhance each other’s mechanisms, making this inaccurate.
Choice D reason: Warfarin is not used because heparin is insufficient but to provide long-term oral anticoagulation. Heparin is effective but requires IV administration, while warfarin allows outpatient management. The combination ensures anticoagulation during warfarin’s onset, not to compensate for heparin’s inadequacy.
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