The nurse is reviewing the culture results of a patient with an infection, and notes that the culture indicates a gram-positive organism. Which generation of cephalosporin is most appropriate for this type of infection?
Third-generation
First-generation
Fourth-generation
Second-generation
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Third-generation cephalosporins, like ceftriaxone, are effective against gram-negative bacteria and some gram-positive organisms but are not the primary choice for gram-positive infections. Their broader spectrum targets complex infections, while gram-positive organisms like Staphylococcus are better treated with first-generation cephalosporins, which are more specific.
Choice B reason: First-generation cephalosporins, like cefazolin, are most effective against gram-positive organisms, such as Staphylococcus and Streptococcus. They inhibit cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding proteins, providing excellent coverage for skin and soft tissue infections caused by gram-positive bacteria, making them the preferred choice.
Choice C reason: Fourth-generation cephalosporins, like cefepime, have a broad spectrum, including gram-negative and some gram-positive organisms. They are reserved for multidrug-resistant infections, not routine gram-positive infections, where first-generation cephalosporins are more targeted and sufficient, reducing the risk of resistance development.
Choice D reason: Second-generation cephalosporins, like cefuroxime, have balanced activity against gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. They are less effective against gram-positive organisms compared to first-generation cephalosporins and are typically used for respiratory or mixed infections, not primarily for gram-positive infections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Headache and nervousness are not significant adverse effects of antitubercular drugs like isoniazid or rifampin. These symptoms are nonspecific and less concerning than neurotoxicity. Antitubercular drugs primarily affect the liver, nerves, or blood, making neurological symptoms like numbness more critical to report.
Choice B reason: Numbness and tingling of extremities indicate peripheral neuropathy, a serious adverse effect of isoniazid, which depletes pyridoxine (vitamin B6), impairing nerve function. This requires immediate reporting to adjust therapy or add pyridoxine supplementation, preventing irreversible nerve damage while continuing effective tuberculosis treatment.
Choice C reason: Reddish-orange urine and stool are expected effects of rifampin, which is metabolized to a red-orange compound excreted in bodily fluids. This is harmless and does not require reporting unless accompanied by other symptoms like jaundice, which could indicate hepatotoxicity, a more serious concern.
Choice D reason: Gastrointestinal upset is common with antitubercular drugs like rifampin or pyrazinamide but is not typically severe enough to warrant immediate reporting unless persistent or accompanied by signs of hepatotoxicity. Numbness is a more concerning neurological effect, requiring prompt prescriber notification to prevent complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Respiratory effects are not primary adverse effects of traditional antihistamines like diphenhydramine. They relieve respiratory symptoms (e.g., allergic rhinitis) by blocking histamine H1 receptors. Adverse effects primarily involve the central nervous system, like sedation, due to their ability to cross the blood-brain barrier.
Choice B reason: Traditional antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine, commonly cause central nervous system effects like drowsiness, confusion, or impaired coordination. By blocking H1 receptors in the brain, they disrupt histamine’s wakefulness-promoting effects, leading to sedation, making this the primary system to assess for adverse effects.
Choice C reason: Cardiovascular effects, like tachycardia, are rare with traditional antihistamines and more associated with second-generation antihistamines in overdose. First-generation antihistamines primarily cause CNS and anticholinergic effects, not significant cardiovascular disturbances, making this a less critical system to monitor.
Choice D reason: Gastrointestinal effects, like nausea, are less common with traditional antihistamines compared to CNS effects. Their anticholinergic properties may cause dry mouth or constipation, but sedation and cognitive impairment are more prominent, making the central nervous system the primary focus for adverse effect assessment.
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