A patient has been taking antitubercular therapy for 3 months. The nurse will assess for what findings that indicate a therapeutic response to the drug therapy?
The client reports orange-tinged urine.
There is a decrease in symptoms of tuberculosis along with improved chest radiographs and sputum cultures.
There is increased tolerance to the medication therapy, and there are fewer reports of adverse effects.
There are two consecutive negative purified protein derivative (PPD) results over 2 months.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Orange-tinged urine is an expected effect of rifampin, not a therapeutic response. It results from the drug’s red-orange metabolite excreted in urine, not an indicator of tuberculosis resolution. Clinical improvement, like reduced symptoms and negative cultures, better reflects the effectiveness of antitubercular therapy.
Choice B reason: A therapeutic response to antitubercular therapy is indicated by decreased symptoms (e.g., cough, fever), improved chest radiographs (reduced infiltrates), and negative sputum cultures, showing reduced Mycobacterium tuberculosis burden. These objective measures confirm the drugs, like isoniazid and rifampin, are effectively killing the bacteria and resolving the infection.
Choice C reason: Increased tolerance to antitubercular therapy or fewer adverse effects does not indicate a therapeutic response. Tolerance reflects patient adaptation to side effects, not bacterial clearance. Objective measures like symptom reduction and negative cultures are needed to confirm the therapy’s effectiveness against tuberculosis.
Choice D reason: Negative PPD results are not used to monitor active tuberculosis treatment. PPD tests detect latent tuberculosis or prior exposure, not active disease. Therapeutic response is assessed through symptom improvement, chest imaging, and sputum cultures, which directly indicate the reduction of active Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Antiviral drugs are not solely for palliative care. They inhibit viral replication, reducing viral load and disease severity, as with acyclovir for herpes. While some provide symptomatic relief, many target specific viral processes, aiming for virologic suppression or cure, not just palliation.
Choice B reason: Antiviral drugs, like acyclovir, inhibit viral replication (e.g., DNA polymerase), but some, like chemotherapy agents, can affect healthy cells with high turnover, causing side effects like myelosuppression. This non-specificity is a key consideration, as it limits dosing and requires monitoring for toxicity.
Choice C reason: Antiviral efficacy does not depend on avoiding re-exposure. Drugs like oseltamivir reduce viral replication during active infection, but re-exposure may cause new infections. Prophylaxis or vaccination prevents reinfection, not the drug’s initial effectiveness, making this statement incorrect for antiviral therapy.
Choice D reason: Antivirals cannot be dosed to eradicate viruses without harming healthy cells. Their mechanisms, like inhibiting viral enzymes, often affect host cells, causing toxicity (e.g., nephrotoxicity with acyclovir). Dose limitations balance efficacy and safety, preventing complete viral eradication without side effects.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose, neutralizing heparin’s anticoagulant effect by binding to it, forming an inactive complex. This reverses excessive anticoagulation, reducing bleeding risk in patients with prolonged aPTT (e.g., 90 seconds), making it the appropriate treatment for heparin-induced bleeding.
Choice B reason: Vitamin E has no role in reversing heparin-induced bleeding. It is an antioxidant with potential antiplatelet effects, which could worsen bleeding. Heparin’s action, enhancing antithrombin to inhibit thrombin and factor Xa, is specifically countered by protamine sulfate, not vitamin E.
Choice C reason: Vitamin K reverses warfarin, not heparin, by restoring vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Heparin acts via antithrombin, independent of vitamin K, and its overdose causes bleeding correctable by protamine sulfate. Vitamin K is ineffective for heparin-related bleeding, making this incorrect.
Choice D reason: Potassium chloride treats hypokalemia, not heparin-induced bleeding. Heparin’s anticoagulant effect, prolonging aPTT, is unrelated to potassium levels. Administering potassium chloride would not address excessive anticoagulation or bleeding, making it irrelevant for managing heparin overdose complications.
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