Which statement is true regarding a transient ischemic attack (TI

This is potentially a warning sign of a hemorrhagic stroke.

This is potentially a warning sign of an ischemic stroke.

Neurological deficits last for 72 hours or less.

The client will have a small area of brain infarction.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason:

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is more commonly a warning sign of an ischemic stroke, not a hemorrhagic stroke. TIAs are caused by temporary blockages that do not result in permanent damage, unlike hemorrhagic strokes that involve bleeding in the brain.

Choice B reason:

A TIA is indeed a warning sign of a potential ischemic stroke. It is caused by a temporary disruption of blood flow to the brain and can serve as an early indicator of a future ischemic stroke if risk factors are not managed.

Choice C reason:

While the symptoms of a TIA can resolve within 24 hours, stating that neurological deficits last for 72 hours or less is inaccurate. The defining feature of a TIA is that symptoms resolve within a short period, typically within a few minutes to hours, but not extending up to 72 hours.

Choice D reason:

A TIA does not cause a small area of brain infarction. By definition, a TIA results in no permanent brain damage or infarction, which distinguishes it from a stroke where an infarction does occur.

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Correct Answer is ["C","D"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: High calcium intake is not a recognized risk factor for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT). DVT is primarily influenced by factors such as blood flow, vessel health, and coagulation tendencies, rather than dietary calcium levels.

Choice B reason: Hypertension can contribute to cardiovascular issues, but it is not directly linked to an increased risk of DVT. Other factors, such as immobility and hypercoagulability, are more significant in the development of DVT.

Choice C reason: This is the correct answer. Immobility is a well-known risk factor for DVT. Prolonged periods of inactivity, such as bed rest or long flights, can lead to blood pooling in the veins of the lower extremities, increasing the risk of clot formation.

Choice D reason: This is the correct answer. Oral contraceptive use is associated with an increased risk of DVT due to the hormones that can affect blood clotting mechanisms. Women using these contraceptives should be aware of the increased risk and take preventive measures.

Choice E reason: A BMI of 20 is considered to be within the normal weight range and is not a risk factor for DVT. Obesity, indicated by a higher BMI, is a recognized risk factor due to increased venous pressure and reduced mobility.

A. neostigmine B. naloxone C. protamine D. flumazenil

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Neostigmine is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used to treat myasthenia gravis and is not relevant to the administration of morphine. It does not act as an antidote for opioid overdose.

Choice B reason: This is the correct answer. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioid overdose, including morphine. It is essential to have naloxone available in case the client experiences respiratory depression or other severe opioid side effects.

Choice C reason: Protamine is used to reverse the effects of heparin, an anticoagulant. It has no role in the management of opioid overdose and is not necessary to have available when administering morphine.

Choice D reason: Flumazenil is an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose. While useful in specific cases, it does not counteract the effects of opioids like morphine and is therefore not the appropriate medication to have on hand in this scenario.

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Which statement is true regarding a transient ischemic attack (TI

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is giving a presentation about preventing deep-vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for this disorder? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["C","D"]

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer morphine IV to a client. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to have available?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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