Which statement is true regarding a transient ischemic attack (TI

This is potentially a warning sign of a hemorrhagic stroke.

This is potentially a warning sign of an ischemic stroke.

Neurological deficits last for 72 hours or less.

The client will have a small area of brain infarction.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason:

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is more commonly a warning sign of an ischemic stroke, not a hemorrhagic stroke. TIAs are caused by temporary blockages that do not result in permanent damage, unlike hemorrhagic strokes that involve bleeding in the brain.

Choice B reason:

A TIA is indeed a warning sign of a potential ischemic stroke. It is caused by a temporary disruption of blood flow to the brain and can serve as an early indicator of a future ischemic stroke if risk factors are not managed.

Choice C reason:

While the symptoms of a TIA can resolve within 24 hours, stating that neurological deficits last for 72 hours or less is inaccurate. The defining feature of a TIA is that symptoms resolve within a short period, typically within a few minutes to hours, but not extending up to 72 hours.

Choice D reason:

A TIA does not cause a small area of brain infarction. By definition, a TIA results in no permanent brain damage or infarction, which distinguishes it from a stroke where an infarction does occur.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Respiratory rate is the priority assessment before administering morphine because morphine can cause respiratory depression, a serious side effect. Monitoring the client's respiratory status ensures that the morphine does not significantly depress their breathing, which could lead to life-threatening hypoventilation.

Choice B reason:

While monitoring urine output is important for overall patient care, it is not the immediate priority before morphine administration. Morphine's primary concern is its impact on the respiratory system rather than renal function.

Choice C reason:

Assessing bowel sounds is relevant for managing potential constipation due to morphine use but is not the immediate priority before administration. Respiratory rate takes precedence because of the risk of respiratory depression.

Choice D reason:

Pupil reaction can indicate narcotic effect and neurological status but is not the immediate priority over respiratory rate. Ensuring the client’s respiratory status is stable is the most crucial step before administering morphine.

A. A client with lactose intolerance B. A client who has had a cerebrovascular accident C. A client who has had prolonged diarrhea D. A client who has had trauma to the head and neck E. A client who is 4 hours postoperative following a leg amputation with general anesthesia

Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Lactose intolerance affects digestive efficiency but does not increase aspiration risk. It primarily causes gastrointestinal symptoms like bloating and diarrhea without impairing swallowing mechanisms.

Choice B reason:

A cerebrovascular accident (stroke) can impair swallowing (dysphagia) due to neurological deficits, significantly raising aspiration risk. These clients need careful assessment and possibly modified diets to prevent aspiration.

Choice C reason:

Prolonged diarrhea affects fluid and electrolyte balance but does not directly compromise swallowing ability. It’s more related to digestive health rather than risks associated with aspiration.

Choice D reason:

Trauma to the head and neck can damage the nerves or structures involved in swallowing, markedly increasing the risk of aspiration. These clients often require detailed assessment and sometimes alternative feeding methods to prevent aspiration.

Choice E reason:

Postoperative clients, especially those recently under general anesthesia, are at risk due to residual effects of anesthesia which can depress the reflexes that protect the airway. Hence, their swallowing function may be temporarily impaired, heightening the risk of aspiration.

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Which statement is true regarding a transient ischemic attack (TI

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assessing a client prior to the administration of morphine. The nurse should recognize which assessment is the priority?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse identify as having an increased risk of aspiration while eating (select all that apply)?

Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]

Explanation

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