You are working in a busy outpatient client and performing assessment on a new patient. The patient reports pain and morning stiffness in the bilateral hands. You see what looks like large nodules on the knuckles, swan-neck deformity of the fingers, and ulnar deviation of the fingers as well. What is your patient's MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
Osteoarthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Lupus arthritis
Gouty Arthritis
The Correct Answer is B
A. Osteoarthritis (OA) typically presents with joint pain and stiffness, but it is usually unilateral and does not cause the same types of deformities seen in RA. OA also tends to develop over time without the systemic symptoms associated with RA.
B. The combination of bilateral pain and morning stiffness in the hands, along with the presence of large nodules (likely rheumatoid nodules), swan-neck deformities, and ulnar deviation, is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). RA is an autoimmune disorder that affects joints symmetrically and commonly leads to these specific deformities.
C. Lupus arthritis can cause joint pain and swelling, but it is often accompanied by other systemic symptoms like skin rashes (butterfly rash), fatigue, and organ involvement. The specific deformities noted (swan-neck and ulnar deviation) are more closely aligned with RA than lupus.
D. Gout is characterized by sudden, severe attacks of pain, often in the big toe or foot, and is caused by the deposition of urate crystals in the joints. It does not typically present with the deformities or patterns seen in the described patient.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. While taking a multivitamin can provide additional nutrients, it is generally not a cause for concern unless the multivitamin contains high doses of certain minerals that might interact negatively with iron absorption. However, this is less pressing compared to the interaction between antacids and iron.
B. Antacids can significantly interfere with the absorption of oral iron supplements, leading to inadequate treatment of iron deficiency anemia. This is the most concerning finding because it may negate the effectiveness of the iron supplementation, making it harder for the patient to improve their iron levels.
C. Black stools are a common and expected side effect of iron supplementation due to the presence of unabsorbed iron in the gastrointestinal tract. While the nurse should monitor for this, it is not inherently concerning as it indicates that the iron is being ingested.
D. Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements. Although it can be uncomfortable, it is not as critical as the potential interference caused by taking antacids. Management strategies can often alleviate this side effect.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Morphine is a strong opioid analgesic that is effective for managing severe pain, especially in acute situations like a vaso-occlusive crisis. Administering it intravenously allows for rapid onset of pain relief, which is critical given the severity of the patient’s symptoms. Continuous dosing (ATC—around the clock) ensures that pain is managed effectively.
B. Fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain management and take time to reach effective levels in the bloodstream (up to 12 hours or longer). In the case of acute severe pain from a vaso- occlusive crisis, this option would not provide immediate relief.
C. While ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can help relieve mild to moderate pain, it is not adequate for severe pain management. Additionally, in the setting of sickle cell disease, patients may be at risk for renal issues, making high doses of NSAIDs potentially harmful.
D. Hydromorphone is also a strong opioid analgesic; however, administering it orally may not be effective for severe pain management in an acute situation. IV administration of opioids is preferred for immediate and potent pain relief during a vaso-occlusive crisis.
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