The nurse preceptor is teaching the newly graduated nurse about the care and treatment of patients with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) who are on dialysis treatment. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
The CKD patient is likely to suffer from recurrent bouts of Diabetes Insipidus
The CKD patient's kidneys don't produce Erythropoietin, so they will receive shots to increase RBC production
The CKD patient is likely to be chronically hypokalemic
CKD patients will likely be chronically Hypercalcemic
The Correct Answer is B
A. Diabetes Insipidus is primarily related to issues with the production of vasopressin (ADH) or the body's response to it, which is not directly caused by CKD. CKD may lead to fluid retention and imbalances, but it does not typically cause recurrent bouts of diabetes insipidus.
B. In CKD, the kidneys lose their ability to produce erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Patients often require erythropoiesis-stimulating agents (ESAs) like erythropoietin injections to manage anemia associated with CKD.
C. CKD patients are often hyperkalemic (high potassium levels) rather than hypokalemic. As kidney function declines, the kidneys struggle to excrete potassium, leading to elevated levels, which can cause serious complications.
D. CKD patients often experience hypocalcemia (low calcium levels) due to several factors, including decreased activation of vitamin D and imbalances in phosphate levels. While some patients may experience transient hypercalcemia due to treatments or dietary factors, chronic hypercalcemia is not typical in CKD.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. While obtaining a sputum culture is important for identifying the causative organism and guiding antibiotic therapy, it is not an immediate priority. Delaying this test briefly for critical interventions (like oxygen administration) is acceptable, as stabilizing the patient's oxygen levels is more urgent.
B. Educating the patient about vaccination is important for long-term health and prevention of future respiratory infections. However, it does not address the current situation and does not provide immediate benefit for the acute episode of pneumonia.
C. The patient has a SpO2 of 91%, which indicates hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood). In pneumonia, adequate oxygenation is crucial to prevent further respiratory distress and potential complications. Administering oxygen therapy will help improve the oxygen saturation and support the patient’s respiratory function, making this the highest priority intervention.
D. While antibiotics are essential for treating bacterial pneumonia, they may take time to exert their effects. In this acute scenario, the immediate need is to ensure the patient is adequately oxygenated. After oxygen is administered, antibiotics can be given promptly.
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
A. Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVC's) (A) are related to cardiac activity and not directly indicative of respiratory function.
B. A respiratory rate of 14 breaths per minute is within the normal range for adults (12-20 breaths per minute). Therefore, this finding does not indicate a decline in respiratory status.
C. Circumoral cyanosis, which refers to a bluish discoloration around the mouth, indicates hypoxia and is a sign of deteriorating respiratory status. It suggests that the body is not getting enough oxygen, which is critical to monitor in an asthma attack.
D. Retractions, especially of the sternal muscles, are a sign of increased work of breathing and can indicate severe respiratory distress. This finding suggests that the patient is struggling to breathe effectively, indicating a decline in respiratory status.
E. An SpO2 of 95% is generally considered acceptable, especially in patients with asthma, as normal oxygen saturation levels typically range from 95% to 100%. While it is at the lower end of normal, it does not indicate an immediate decline in respiratory status.
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