All of the following are common causes of Iron deficiency anemia, EXCEPT?

Chronic blood loss

Liver problems

Decreased folic acid absorption in the gut

Low dietary intake of Iron

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   Chronic blood loss is one of the most common causes of iron deficiency anemia. Conditions such as gastrointestinal bleeding (e.g., from ulcers, polyps, or cancer), heavy menstrual periods, or chronic blood donation can lead to a gradual loss of iron, resulting in anemia.
B.   While liver problems can lead to various blood disorders, they are not a direct cause of iron deficiency anemia. Liver disease can affect iron metabolism and storage but does not typically cause iron deficiency unless accompanied by chronic blood loss or malnutrition.
C.   Decreased folic acid absorption leads to folate deficiency anemia, not iron deficiency anemia. While folate is important for red blood cell production, it does not directly influence iron levels. This option is not a common cause of iron deficiency anemia.
D.   Low dietary intake of iron is a well-known cause of iron deficiency anemia. Diets lacking in iron-rich foods (such as red meat, beans, and fortified cereals) can lead to insufficient iron stores and subsequent anemia.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Morphine is a strong opioid analgesic that is effective for managing severe pain, especially in acute situations like a vaso-occlusive crisis. Administering it intravenously allows for rapid onset of pain relief, which is critical given the severity of the patient’s symptoms. Continuous dosing (ATC—around the clock) ensures that pain is managed effectively.
B. Fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain management and take time to reach effective levels in the bloodstream (up to 12 hours or longer). In the case of acute severe pain from a vaso- occlusive crisis, this option would not provide immediate relief.
C. While ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can help relieve mild to moderate pain, it is not adequate for severe pain management. Additionally, in the setting of sickle cell disease, patients may be at risk for renal issues, making high doses of NSAIDs potentially harmful.
D. Hydromorphone is also a strong opioid analgesic; however, administering it orally may not be effective for severe pain management in an acute situation. IV administration of opioids is preferred for immediate and potent pain relief during a vaso-occlusive crisis.

A. Distributive B. Hypovolemic C. Obstructive D. Cardiogenic

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. This type of shock occurs when there is widespread vasodilation leading to a relative hypovolemia, often seen in conditions like sepsis. Given that the patient has a surgical site infection, this is a plausible consideration. However, distributive shock typically involves more than just hypotension, including symptoms like warm skin and possible fever.
B. This type of shock results from significant fluid loss, leading to inadequate circulating volume. It can occur after surgery due to bleeding or fluid loss, but the context here suggests that the primary issue is infection rather than direct fluid loss.
C. Obstructive shock happens when there is a physical obstruction to blood flow, such as in cases of pulmonary embolism or tension pneumothorax. There’s no indication of obstruction in this scenario related to the infection and hypotension.
D. This shock type occurs when the heart fails to pump effectively, often due to myocardial infarction or severe heart failure. The patient’s history does not suggest heart dysfunction, so this option is less likely.

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All of the following are common causes of Iron deficiency anemia, EXCEPT?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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