A 15-year-old boy presents to the nurse practitioner with polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss. The NP diagnoses diabetic ketoacidosis resulting from undiagnosed type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM). What is the pathophysiology underlying T1DM?
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is caused by insulin resistance.
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is caused by a single genetic mutation in an autosomal dominant gene
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is a complication of other diseases affecting the pancreas (e.g., pancreatitis), hormone disturbances (e.g., Cushing’s disease), or due to medications (e.g., corticosteroids)
Type 1 diabetes mellitus is an autoimmune disease that leads to the destruction of insulin-producing pancreatic beta cells
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Insulin resistance is the hallmark of type 2 diabetes mellitus, not type 1. In type 1 diabetes, the issue is not resistance to insulin but rather a lack of insulin production due to destruction of beta cells.
Choice B reason: Type 1 diabetes is not caused by a single genetic mutation nor is it inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion. While genetic predisposition plays a role, it involves multiple genes and environmental triggers leading to autoimmune destruction.
Choice C reason: Secondary diabetes can result from pancreatic diseases, hormonal disorders, or medications, but this is classified as type 3c diabetes or drug-induced diabetes. It is not the mechanism underlying classic type 1 diabetes.
Choice D reason: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system mistakenly attacks and destroys insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas. This leads to absolute insulin deficiency, hyperglycemia, and in severe cases, diabetic ketoacidosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This response is inappropriate and irrelevant to the question. Pap smear guidelines are based on age and sexual activity, not contraceptive use. It also risks making assumptions about the patient’s intentions.
Choice B reason: Current guidelines recommend initiating Pap smear screening at age 21, regardless of sexual activity. This response provides accurate, evidence-based information and respects the patient’s autonomy and inquiry.
Choice C reason: This response is dismissive and assumes the patient’s sexual activity status. It fails to provide the necessary health education and may discourage future engagement in preventive care.
Choice D reason: This response is intrusive and judgmental. It does not answer the patient’s question and may create discomfort or mistrust in the clinical relationship.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Psychotic symptoms in bipolar disorder can last longer than one month, especially during severe manic or depressive episodes. The duration alone does not differentiate bipolar disorder from schizoaffective disorder.
Choice B reason: In bipolar disorder, psychotic symptoms are mood-congruent and occur exclusively during mood episodes. In contrast, schizoaffective disorder includes psychotic symptoms that persist independently of mood disturbances, which is the key distinguishing feature.
Choice C reason: Schizoaffective disorder can include both depressive and manic or hypomanic episodes. It is not limited to depressive episodes alone. The subtype (depressive type or bipolar type) depends on the nature of the mood episodes.
Choice D reason: Schizoaffective disorder often includes full-blown episodes of major depression. The presence of major depressive episodes is part of the diagnostic criteria for the depressive subtype of schizoaffective disorder.
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