A 16-year-old client with a history of chronic ear infections when younger comes to the clinic for a health exam. No ear pain, vertigo or hearing loss is reported during history taking. Inspection of the tympanic membranes (TM) reveals the presence of dense white patches on the TMs in both ears. Both TMs are a translucent gray with a light reflex at 5:00. All landmarks are visible. Based on these findings, which action should the nurse take next?
Record the findings in the client's record.
Clean the ears to remove excess wax build up.
Referral to an audiologist for a hearing evaluation.
Culture the white patches for possible fungal growth.
The Correct Answer is A
A. This is an appropriate first step in documenting any unusual findings during the assessment. However, based on the presence of dense white patches, the nurse should consider a referral for further evaluation, rather than just recording the findings.
B. The dense white patches seen on the tympanic membrane are more likely related to past ear infections (such as tympanosclerosis) or other conditions, not excess wax. Cleaning the ears would not address the underlying cause and could potentially cause harm.
C. This could be a reasonable action if there were concerns about hearing loss. However, the tympanic membranes appear mostly normal apart from the white patches, so hearing loss is not strongly indicated by the findings alone. A referral might be premature unless hearing issues are suspected.
D. The dense white patches on the tympanic membranes could be indicative of tympanosclerosis, a benign condition related to previous infections or tube insertions, but fungal growth is not the most likely cause in this case.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This is not applicable in this case. A BMI of 14 kg/m² indicates severe malnutrition, not excess nutrition. The client is at risk for nutritional deficiencies, not an excess of nutrition.
B. While fluid volume might be a concern in severely malnourished clients, the primary issue in this scenario is related to nutrition rather than fluid imbalance. A low BMI suggests insufficient caloric intake.
C. Excess fluid volume is not typically associated with a low BMI. In fact, clients with a BMI this low may show signs of dehydration or fluid loss due to inadequate nutritional intake.
D. This is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. A BMI of 14 kg/m² is indicative of severe malnutrition and the client is not meeting their nutritional needs, which could lead to further health complications.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. This is unlikely to be associated with perimenopause. Often, perimenopause is linked to hormonal fluctuations that can lead to decreased libido rather than an increase.
B. While cessation of menstruation may indicate menopause, it is not typically seen during the perimenopausal phase, which is the time leading up to menopause. Perimenopause is characterized by irregular periods, not complete cessation.
C. Perimenopausal symptoms typically involve a decrease in vaginal moisture due to reduced estrogen levels. Excessive vaginal moisture would not be indicative of perimenopause and might suggest an infection or other conditions.
D. This is a classic symptom of perimenopause. Hormonal fluctuations during this time can lead to hot flashes and night sweats, which are commonly experienced as part of the transition toward menopause.
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