A 16-year-old client with a history of chronic ear infections when younger comes to the clinic for a health exam. No ear pain, vertigo or hearing loss is reported during history taking. Inspection of the tympanic membranes (TM) reveals the presence of dense white patches on the TMs in both ears. Both TMs are a translucent gray with a light reflex at 5:00. All landmarks are visible. Based on these findings, which action should the nurse take next?
Record the findings in the client's record.
Clean the ears to remove excess wax build up.
Referral to an audiologist for a hearing evaluation.
Culture the white patches for possible fungal growth.
The Correct Answer is A
A. This is an appropriate first step in documenting any unusual findings during the assessment. However, based on the presence of dense white patches, the nurse should consider a referral for further evaluation, rather than just recording the findings.
B. The dense white patches seen on the tympanic membrane are more likely related to past ear infections (such as tympanosclerosis) or other conditions, not excess wax. Cleaning the ears would not address the underlying cause and could potentially cause harm.
C. This could be a reasonable action if there were concerns about hearing loss. However, the tympanic membranes appear mostly normal apart from the white patches, so hearing loss is not strongly indicated by the findings alone. A referral might be premature unless hearing issues are suspected.
D. The dense white patches on the tympanic membranes could be indicative of tympanosclerosis, a benign condition related to previous infections or tube insertions, but fungal growth is not the most likely cause in this case.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Facial asymmetry may indicate neurological issues, but it does not directly assess the stuporous state.
B. A stuporous state is characterized by a reduced level of consciousness, and the nurse should assess
the client’s response to stimuli to confirm the report of stupor.
C. A positive Romberg sign indicates a balance issue, but it is not directly related to confirming a stuporous state.
D. While pupillary response is important, it does not provide sufficient information to confirm a stuporous state without assessing responsiveness to stimuli.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Frozen or non-movable joints typically refer to severe joint damage such as in cases of rheumatoid arthritis or advanced osteoarthritis, but Heberden's nodes are characterized by bony growths at the distal interphalangeal joints and do not indicate frozen joints.
B. Heberden's nodes are bony enlargements found at the distal interphalangeal joints. However, they are not typically associated with deviation of the joints, which might occur with other conditions like rheumatoid arthritis.
C. Proximal intertarsal joint swelling, particularly of the big toe, is more likely associated with gout, not osteoarthritis. Heberden's nodes specifically refer to changes in the distal interphalangeal joints of the fingers.
D. Heberden's nodes are typically non-painful enlargements of the distal interphalangeal joints that result from osteoarthritis. The nurse should document the presence of these nodes and note if they are non-painful.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.