A 16-year-old client with a history of chronic ear infections when younger comes to the clinic for a health exam. No ear pain, vertigo or hearing loss is reported during history taking. Inspection of the tympanic membranes (TM) reveals the presence of dense white patches on the TMs in both ears. Both TMs are a translucent gray with a light reflex at 5:00. All landmarks are visible. Based on these findings, which action should the nurse take next?
Record the findings in the client's record.
Clean the ears to remove excess wax build up.
Referral to an audiologist for a hearing evaluation.
Culture the white patches for possible fungal growth.
The Correct Answer is A
A. This is an appropriate first step in documenting any unusual findings during the assessment. However, based on the presence of dense white patches, the nurse should consider a referral for further evaluation, rather than just recording the findings.
B. The dense white patches seen on the tympanic membrane are more likely related to past ear infections (such as tympanosclerosis) or other conditions, not excess wax. Cleaning the ears would not address the underlying cause and could potentially cause harm.
C. This could be a reasonable action if there were concerns about hearing loss. However, the tympanic membranes appear mostly normal apart from the white patches, so hearing loss is not strongly indicated by the findings alone. A referral might be premature unless hearing issues are suspected.
D. The dense white patches on the tympanic membranes could be indicative of tympanosclerosis, a benign condition related to previous infections or tube insertions, but fungal growth is not the most likely cause in this case.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A decrease in hematocrit from 36% to 32% suggests ongoing blood loss and that the client’s GI bleeding has not yet resolved. Hematocrit is a key indicator of the client’s blood volume and oxygen- carrying capacity.
B. Hemoglobin A1C reflects long-term blood sugar control, not current blood loss. A change in A1C is not indicative of GI bleeding resolution.
C. An increase in prothrombin time (PT) from 12 to 18 seconds indicates clotting abnormalities, which may occur with liver dysfunction or anticoagulant therapy, but it doesn't directly relate to GI bleeding resolution.
D. A positive to negative change in the guaiac test (fecal occult blood test) would indicate that the blood in the stool is no longer present, suggesting resolution of bleeding, which doesn’t match the question’s context.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Tenting of the skin is a classic sign of dehydration. When the skin is pinched and does not return quickly to its normal position, it indicates a lack of fluid in the body. This is a common finding in dehydration, particularly in older adults.
B. Loss of skin elasticity is a natural part of the aging process and may not be directly related to dehydration. It is common in older adults and is not necessarily an indicator of fluid status.
C. Warm and dry skin can be a sign of dehydration, particularly if accompanied by other symptoms such as a dry mouth or increased heart rate. Dry skin occurs when there is insufficient moisture in the body, which is common in dehydration.
D. Thinning hair in the lower extremities is more often associated with circulation issues or aging. It is not a typical sign of dehydration and would not be used as a primary indicator for assessing hydration status.
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