A 16-year-old patient has been diagnosed and treated for genital warts. The LEAST important action at this time is to:

screen the patient for other sexually transmitted diseases (STDs).

perform a Pap test.

test the patient's sexual partners for sexually transmitted diseases.

prescribe another course of imiquimod (Aldara) 5% topical cream.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Rationale:
A. Screening for other STDs is important because patients with genital warts may be at increased risk for co-infections, including chlamydia, gonorrhea, and HIV.
B. Performing a Pap test is important in sexually active females to screen for cervical dysplasia, especially given the association of HPV with cervical cancer.
C. Testing sexual partners for STDs is essential to prevent reinfection and further transmission of sexually transmitted infections.
D. Prescribing another course of imiquimod (Aldara) 5% cream is the least immediately important action if the patient has already completed treatment and lesions have resolved. Follow-up is necessary, but additional medication is only indicated if warts persist or recur.

Nursing Test Bank

Test Bank #1: RN Pharmacology Exams Test Bank #2: RN Medical-Surgical Exams Test Bank #3: RN Fundamentals Exams Test Bank #4: RN Maternal-Newborn Exams Test Bank #5: RN Anatomy and Physiology Exams Test Bank #6: RN Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Test Bank #7: RN Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Test Bank #9: RN Adult Health Test Bank #10: RN Dosage Calculation Test Bank #11: RN Community Health Exams Test Bank #12: RN Psychology Exams Test Bank #13: RN Nursing Care Of Children Test Bank #14: RN Foundations of Nursing Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exam #1: RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 proctored exam Exam #2: Ati rn vati comprehensive predictor proctored exam Exam #3: Ati Rn Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam 2023 Exam #4: Rn Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Proctored Exam - St. Joseph Exam #5: RN Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam (National U CA San Diego) Exam #6: Ati rn comprehensive predictor 2023 retake proctored exam Exam #7: RN Hesi Exit Proctored Exam Exam #8: Hesi RN Exit proctored exam Exam #9: Hesi rn exit proctored exam Exam #10: Hesi Rn compass exit B proctored exam

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Rationale:
A. Cefoxitin is not effective against Treponema pallidum, the causative agent of syphilis.
B. A single intramuscular dose of benzathine penicillin G (Bicillin LA) is the recommended treatment for primary syphilis in patients without penicillin allergy. This regimen effectively eradicates the infection and prevents progression.
C. Multiple doses of cefoxitin are unnecessary and not indicated for syphilis.
D. Weekly dosing for 3 weeks of benzathine penicillin G is reserved for late latent syphilis or tertiary syphilis, not primary syphilis.

A. an oral contraceptive. B. an opioid analgesic. C. acetaminophen. D. a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale:
A. Oral contraceptives can be used for dysmenorrhea, particularly if symptoms are severe or associated with ovulatory cycles, but they are not considered first-line therapy.
B. Opioid analgesics are reserved for severe, refractory pain and are generally avoided due to risk of dependence and side effects.
C. Acetaminophen may provide some pain relief but is less effective than NSAIDs in reducing the prostaglandin-mediated pain of dysmenorrhea.
D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), such as ibuprofen or naproxen, are the first-line pharmacologic treatment. They inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, directly addressing the uterine cramping and pain associated with dysmenorrhea.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A 16-year-old patient has been diagnosed and treated for genital warts. The LEAST important action at this time is to:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An adolescent was diagnosed with primary syphilis. He has no known drug allergies. The most appropriate treatment would be:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The first-line pharmacologic management for dysmenorrhea is:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A 6-month-old male infant was diagnosed with a hydrocele. The nurse practitioner should:

The first and most obvious sign of precocious puberty in a 7-year-old female is:

Subperiosteal hemorrhage resulting from the trauma of birth is known as a:

Preterm infants are at greatest risk for.

An 11-year-old patient complains of pain after pitching during a baseball game. On examination, the NP notes increased pain in the right elbow with wrist flexion against resistance. This finding is most consistent with:

A 9-year-old child has been diagnosed with chickenpox. The nurse practitioner should instruct the mother to:

In a 2-month-old infant, a machine-like continuous murmur is audible and heard loudest in the upper left sternal border (ULSB) during late systole. This finding could be suggestive of a: