A 19-year-old patient reports persistent itching and peeling dry skin between the first and second toes. The patient also has a burning sensation. An internal medicine practitioner prescribes antifungal ointment and wash for the next four weeks. Which condition does this patient have?
Foot nevus
Tinea pedis
Foot blister
Tinea unguium
The Correct Answer is B
A. Foot nevus:
A nevus is a mole or birthmark, not a fungal infection or a cause of itching and peeling.
B. Tinea pedis:
Tinea pedis, or athlete's foot, is a fungal infection characterized by itching, burning, and peeling skin between the toes.
C. Foot blister:
A blister is a fluid-filled sac caused by friction, not fungal infection.
D. Tinea unguium:
Tinea unguium refers to fungal infection of the nails, not the skin.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Genital human papillomavirus infection:
HPV causes genital warts that can be transmitted during birth, leading to conditions like respiratory papillomatosis in the baby.
B. Syphilis:
Syphilis causes painless ulcers (chancres) but the description fits HPV better.
C. Genital herpes:
Herpes lesions are typically painful vesicles, not warty growths.
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID):
PID is a complication of sexually transmitted infections but involves internal reproductive organs- no external warty lesions.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. GERD (Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease):
GERD causes heartburn and regurgitation, not RLQ pain or diarrhea.
B. Crohn disease:
Crohn's disease (regional enteritis) causes chronic inflammation that can affect any part of the GI tract, often terminal ileum (RLQ pain), with diarrhea and weight loss.
C. Peptic ulcers:
Peptic ulcers cause epigastric pain, typically related to meals, not chronic RLQ pain or diarrhea.
D. Pancreatitis:
Pancreatitis causes epigastric pain radiating to the back, not right lower quadrant pain or chronic diarrhea.
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