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A 32-year-old patient has rectal bleeding, pruritus, and vague discomfort around the anal area after giving birth. The provider describes the disorder to the patient as dilated, tortuous veins in the mucous membrane of the rectum. Which disease is being described?

Diverticulitis

Hemorrhoids

Gastroenteritis

Diverticulosis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Diverticulitis:

Diverticulitis affects the large intestine, not causing anal pruritus or bleeding directly.

B. Hemorrhoids:

Postpartum hemorrhoids are common due to pressure during pregnancy and delivery, causing dilated rectal veins, bleeding, itching, and discomfort.

C. Gastroenteritis:

Gastroenteritis causes nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, but not localized rectal vein problems.

D. Diverticulosis:

Diverticulosis is the presence of diverticula in the colon, often asymptomatic unless inflamed (diverticulitis).

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. The kidney senses decreased perfusion:

This occurs earlier in the RAAS sequence, triggering the release of renin — not the immediate next step after angiotensin I is produced.

B. Renin is released and cleaves angiotensinogen:

This precedes the production of angiotensin I, not after.

C. Blood volume is raised and blood pressure is increased:

This is the final result of RAAS activation, not the step immediately following angiotensin I production.

D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme helps to produce angiotensin II in the lungs and to stimulate the adrenal gland to release aldosterone:

After angiotensin I is produced, it travels to the lungs where ACE converts it into angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor that also triggers aldosterone release.

A. Keratosis pilaris B. Vitiligo C. Rosacea D. Psoriasis

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Keratosis pilaris:

This is a condition of small, rough bumps typically on arms or thighs, not depigmentation.

B. Vitiligo:

Vitiligo is a condition where melanocytes are destroyed, leading to depigmented patches of skin, especially in sun-exposed areas.

C. Rosacea:

Rosacea is characterized by facial redness, flushing, and visible blood vessels, not loss of pigment.

D. Psoriasis:

Psoriasis involves scaly, red plaques due to rapid skin cell turnover, not loss of melanocytes.

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A 32-year-old patient has rectal bleeding, pruritus, and vague discomfort around the anal area after giving birth. The provider describes the disorder to the patient as dilated, tortuous veins in the mucous membrane of the rectum. Which disease is being described?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Consider the steps the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system [RAAS] goes through when there is a decrease in circulation or a drop in blood pressure, ordered from the earliest to the latest. What is the step directly after angiotensin I is produced?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A patient's record indicates a skin condition in which depigmentation appears on different parts of the body that are often exposed to sunlight. A skin biopsy reveals a lack of melanocytes. Which condition does this describe?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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