A 23-year-old primigravida who appears to be in her third trimester of pregnancy comes to the labor and delivery unit reporting acute abdominal pain. She has had no prenatal care. Which assessment should the nurse do first?

Obtain a full history.

Examine the cervix for dilation

Examine the cervix for dilation.

Palpate for uterine contraction frequency

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

This is because the first priority for a pregnant woman with acute abdominal pain is to assess the fetal well-being and rule out any obstetric complications such as placental abruption, uterine rupture, or preterm labor. Fetal heart tones can indicate the presence and viability of the fetus and alert the nurse to any signs of fetal distress or hypoxia.

Choice A: Obtain a full history is wrong because it is not the most urgent action.

A full history can provide valuable information about the possible causes of abdominal pain, but it should not delay the assessment of fetal status and maternal vital signs.

Choice B: Examine the cervix for dilation is wrong because it can be harmful in some cases. A digital cervical examination should be avoided until placenta previa is ruled out by ultrasound, as it can cause bleeding and worsen the condition.

Moreover, cervical dilation alone does not indicate the cause or severity of abdominal pain.

Choice D: Palpate for uterine contraction frequency is wrong because it is not the most reliable method to assess labor. Uterine contractions can be measured by external tocodynamometry or internal intrauterine pressure catheter, which can provide more accurate and objective data than manual palpation.

Furthermore, uterine contractions do not necessarily indicate labor, as they can also be caused by other conditions such as dehydration, infection, or irritable uterus.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is choice C. Auscultate the fetal heart sounds.This is because spontaneous rupture of membranes (SROM) may be associated with fetal distress or cord prolapse, and the nurse should assess the fetal well-being as soon as possible.Fetal heart sounds can indicate the presence of fetal bradycardia, tachycardia, or decelerations, which may require immediate intervention.

Choice A is wrong because checking the specific gravity of the amniotic fluid is not a priority action after SROM.The specific gravity can help differentiate amniotic fluid from urine, but it is not as reliable as other methods such as nitrazine paper test or visual inspection.

Choice B is wrong because providing dry linens for the patient is a comfort measure, but not a priority action after SROM.The nurse should first ensure the safety of the fetus and the mother before attending to their comfort needs.

Choice D is wrong because notifying the health care provider is an important action after SROM, but not the first one.The nurse should gather relevant data such as fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and characteristics of the fluid before contacting the provider.

A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis. B. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease her risk of developing pericarditis. C. The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will help to decrease her risk of developing chorioamnionitis. D. The patient will deliver post-term, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing a systemic infection.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. The patient has heart disease, and the antibiotics will decrease the risk to her fetus of developing endocarditis.Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and valves, which can be caused by bacteria entering the bloodstream during labor and delivery.Patients with mitral valve prolapse (MVP) are more prone to develop endocarditis because their valve leaflets are floppy and do not close tightly, creating a site for bacterial attachment.Antibiotics can help prevent this complication by killing the bacteria before they reach the heart.

Choice B is wrong because pericarditis is an inflammation of the outer layer of the heart, not the inner lining or valves.It is not related to MVP or bacterial infection.

Choice C is wrong because chorioamnionitis is an infection of the membranes and fluid that surround the fetus, not the heart.It is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the vagina or cervix, not from the bloodstream.

Choice D is wrong because delivering post-term does not increase the risk of systemic infection for the fetus.Systemic infection means infection that affects multiple organs or systems in the body, not just one specific site.

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A 23-year-old primigravida who appears to be in her third trimester of pregnancy comes to the labor and delivery unit reporting acute abdominal pain. She has had no prenatal care. Which assessment should the nurse do first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient states, “My water just broke.” The nurse verifies that her membranes have ruptured spontaneously. Which action should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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