A 25 year-old female patient will begin taking phenytoin for epilepsy. The patient tells the nurse she is taking oral contraceptives (OCPs). Which response will the nurse give?
"Continue taking OCPS because phenytoin is not safe during pregnancy."
"You should use a backup method of contraception along with OCPs."
"You should stop taking OCPs because of drug-drug interactions with phenytoin."
"You should take low-dose aspirin while taking these medications to reduce your risk of stroke."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "Continue taking OCPS because phenytoin is not safe during pregnancy."
This statement is not accurate. While it's essential to address pregnancy risk, phenytoin can reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. Women on phenytoin are often advised to use additional contraceptive measures.
B. "You should use a backup method of contraception along with OCPs."
This is the correct response. Phenytoin can accelerate the metabolism of oral contraceptives, potentially reducing their effectiveness. Using a backup method, such as condoms, is recommended to ensure adequate contraception.
C. "You should stop taking OCPs because of drug-drug interactions with phenytoin."
This advice is generally not recommended without consulting the healthcare provider. Abruptly stopping OCPs without an alternative form of contraception can increase the risk of unintended pregnancy.
D. "You should take low-dose aspirin while taking these medications to reduce your risk of stroke."
This statement is not relevant to the situation described. Low-dose aspirin is not typically recommended for contraception, and its use in this context does not address the potential interaction between phenytoin and oral contraceptives.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Butorphanol
Butorphanol is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist. It has both agonist and antagonist properties at opioid receptors. While it can be used for pain management, it is not commonly used for opioid overdose reversal.
B. Naloxone
Naloxone is an opioid receptor antagonist and is the drug of choice for reversing opioid overdose, including morphine overdose. It works by competitively binding to opioid receptors, blocking the effects of opioids.
C. Flumazenil
Flumazenil is a selective antagonist for benzodiazepines. It is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose but does not have an effect on opioid overdose.
D. Pentazocine
Pentazocine is a mixed opioid agonist-antagonist. Like butorphanol, it has both agonist and antagonist properties at opioid receptors. It is used for pain management but is not commonly used for opioid overdose reversal.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Parkinson's disease
Edrophonium is not used for the diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. The diagnosis is typically based on clinical symptoms and neurological examination.
B. Alzheimer's disease
Edrophonium is not used for the diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder affecting cognition. The diagnosis involves clinical evaluation, cognitive assessments, and sometimes imaging studies, but not the use of edrophonium.
C. Myasthenia Gravis
This is the correct choice. Edrophonium is used as a diagnostic tool in Myasthenia Gravis. In individuals with Myasthenia Gravis, the administration of edrophonium can lead to a temporary improvement in muscle strength, helping to confirm the diagnosis.
D. Serotonin Syndrome
Edrophonium is not used for the diagnosis of serotonin syndrome. Serotonin syndrome is a condition caused by an excess of serotonin, often due to the use of certain medications. Diagnosis is based on clinical symptoms and a history of serotonin-affecting medications, not the administration of edrophonium.
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