A 28-year-old woman presents to the PMHNP for an evaluation of "crying spells" associated with her recent move to the area. She moved across the country approximately 2 months ago to accept a new job. She states that she cries every day after getting home from work. She is confused by this reaction, because this was a "happy" move for her. She misses her family and friends, but she does not regret the move in any way. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Acute stress disorder
Adjustment disorder
Conversion disorder
Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Acute stress disorder occurs within the first month after a traumatic event, and this scenario involves emotional response to a life transition rather than trauma.
Choice B reason: Adjustment disorder is characterized by emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to identifiable stressors, such as relocation or life changes, occurring within three months of the stressor. The timing and context of her symptoms fit this diagnosis.
Choice C reason: Conversion disorder involves neurological symptoms without a medical cause and is unrelated to crying spells in response to stressors.
Choice D reason: PTSD requires exposure to a traumatic event involving threat to life or safety, which is not present in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: While risk assessment contributes to public safety, focusing solely on protecting the public does not encompass the full scope of evaluating individual risk factors and integrating interventions.
Choice B reason: This option mischaracterizes risk assessment as being exclusively reactive to a committed crime rather than proactive evaluation of potential risk in mental health and criminal justice contexts.
Choice C reason: Risk assessments may occur in emergency or forensic settings, but the definition is broader and not limited to post-arrest evaluations.
Choice D reason: Risk assessment is a systematic process that evaluates an individual’s potential for harmful behavior by considering clinical, historical, and situational factors. It integrates both mental health evaluation and criminal justice considerations to inform decisions about management, treatment, and public safety. This approach ensures that interventions are appropriately targeted, balancing the needs of the individual with the protection of the community, and is therefore the most comprehensive description of risk assessment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Persistent depressive disorder can begin at any age, including adolescence, not only late in life.
Choice B reason: Hypomanic episodes are features of bipolar disorders, not persistent depressive disorder.
Choice C reason: Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) is characterized by a chronic, low-grade depressive state lasting at least two years in adults, differentiating it from the episodic nature of major depressive disorder.
Choice D reason: Both persistent depressive disorder and major depressive disorder are diagnosed based on objective criteria, not solely subjective reports.
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