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A 29-year-old patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with the following symptoms: restlessness, hyperactive reflexes, talkativeness, confusion and periods of panic, and tachycardia. The nurse suspects that he may be experiencing the effects of taking which substance?

A.

Opioids

B.

Depressants

C.

Alcohol

D.

Stimulants

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.    Opioids: Opioids typically cause sedation, respiratory depression, and decreased reflexes, which are opposite to the symptoms described.
B.    Depressants: Depressants, such as benzodiazepines or alcohol, would likely cause sedation, decreased reflexes, and confusion, but not the symptoms of restlessness, talkativeness, and hyperactive reflexes.
C.    Alcohol: While alcohol intoxication can cause confusion, talkativeness, and tachycardia, it is less likely to result in hyperactive reflexes and restlessness as described.
D.    Stimulants: Stimulants, such as amphetamines or cocaine, can cause restlessness, hyperactivity, talkativeness, confusion, panic, and tachycardia, matching the symptoms described.
 


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Carbidopa prevents the breakdown of levodopa in the periphery, specifically in the gastrointestinal tract and peripheral tissues, allowing more levodopa to reach the brain and be converted to dopamine. This enhances the effectiveness of levodopa therapy in managing the symptoms of Parkinson's disease.
B. Carbidopa is not the biologic precursor of dopamine. It is a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor that does not cross the blood-brain barrier.
C. Carbidopa does not directly allow for larger doses of levodopa to be given. However, by

inhibiting the peripheral breakdown of levodopa, it enhances the availability of levodopa to the central nervous system, potentially improving therapeutic efficacy.
D. While levodopa-carbidopa combination therapy may have fewer drug-food interactions compared to levodopa alone, the primary reason for combining these medications is to enhance the effectiveness of levodopa by preventing its peripheral breakdown.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Dantrolene injection, a skeletal muscle relaxant: The patient is exhibiting signs of malignant hyperthermia, a potentially life-threatening complication of anesthesia. Dantrolene is the primary treatment for malignant hyperthermia as it acts as a skeletal muscle relaxant, reducing muscle rigidity and hypermetabolism associated with the condition.
B. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and intubation: While the patient is experiencing significant physiological distress, initiating CPR and intubation would be premature without first addressing the underlying cause, which appears to be malignant hyperthermia.
C. An anticholinesterase drug, such as neostigmine: Anticholinesterase drugs like neostigmine are not indicated for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia.
D. Naltrexone hydrochloride injection, an opioid reversal drug: Naltrexone is used for opioid overdose reversal and is not appropriate for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia.

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