A 31-year-old woman presents to the PMHNP for a regular medication management appointment. While there, she mentions concerns that her 16-month-old son might have autism, and she asks the nurse practitioner how to have him evaluated for the condition. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
“He is much too young to be concerned about that now. Screening for autism doesn’t begin until after age 24 months.”
“The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends that all children receive autism-specific screening at age 18 and 24 months. These screenings can occur at your child’s well visits.”
“If there is no significant family history of autism, it is unlikely your son has autism. I know you are concerned, but more than likely, he is fine.”
“Your pediatrician should have already evaluated him for autism at a well visit. If the physician was concerned, he would have let you know.”
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because autism-specific screening is recommended to begin as early as 18 months. Waiting until after 24 months could delay early identification and intervention, which are crucial for improving developmental outcomes.
Choice B reason: This is correct. Evidence-based guidelines recommend universal autism screening at 18 and 24 months during routine pediatric visits. Early identification allows for timely referral to developmental services and behavioral interventions that significantly improve outcomes for children with autism spectrum disorder.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because autism can occur regardless of family history. Relying solely on family history risks missing early signs in children without a known familial predisposition.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because pediatricians may not always identify subtle signs of autism during routine well visits. Proactive screening at recommended ages ensures that potential developmental concerns are systematically assessed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: SSRIs are not indicated for cluster headaches. These medications are primarily used to treat depression and anxiety and have minimal effect on the pathophysiology of cluster headaches.
Choice B reason: Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, may help with anxiety or insomnia but is not effective in aborting or preventing cluster headaches.
Choice C reason: This is the correct answer. Cluster headaches are severe, unilateral, stabbing headaches often associated with autonomic symptoms like tearing and nasal congestion. Sumatriptan, a selective serotonin 5-HT1B/1D receptor agonist, is the treatment of choice for acute attacks due to its rapid onset and ability to alleviate pain.
Choice D reason: Naproxen, an NSAID, may be effective for tension-type headaches or migraine prophylaxis but is ineffective for acute cluster headache attacks due to the extreme severity and rapid onset of pain.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer. The Vanderbilt Assessment Scales are widely used for evaluating ADHD symptoms in children and adolescents, incorporating both parent and teacher input to assess symptom severity and functional impairment.
Choice B reason: The Clinical Opiate Withdrawal Scale (COWS) is used to assess opioid withdrawal and is not relevant to ADHD evaluation.
Choice C reason: The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment (CIWA) is used to monitor alcohol withdrawal and is unrelated to ADHD assessment.
Choice D reason: The Diagnostic Interview Schedule for Children (DISC) is a structured diagnostic tool for mental health disorders in children but is less commonly used for initial ADHD screening compared to the Vanderbilt scales.
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