A 35-year-old patient presents with pulmonary hypertension and is diagnosed with right heart failure. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
Aortic regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation
Aortic stenosis
Tricuspid regurgitation
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve doesn’t close tightly, causing blood to leak back into the left ventricle. This condition can lead to left heart failure but is not typically associated with right heart failure.
Choice B rationale
Mitral regurgitation is a disorder in which the mitral valve on the left side of the heart does not close properly. This condition can lead to left heart failure but is not typically associated with right heart failure.
Choice C rationale
Aortic stenosis is a narrowing of the aortic valve opening. This condition can lead to left heart failure but is not typically associated with right heart failure.
Choice D rationale
Tricuspid regurgitation is a disorder in which the heart’s tricuspid valve does not close properly, causing blood to flow backward into the right atrium. This condition can lead to right heart failure, especially when associated with pulmonary hypertension.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Bleeding from the gums is a sign of excessive bleeding, which can be a side effect of thrombolytic therapy. Thrombolytic agents work by dissolving blood clots, but they can also interfere with the body’s normal clotting mechanism, leading to bleeding. If a patient experiences unusual or excessive bleeding, it may be necessary to stop the infusion of the thrombolytic agent.
Choice B rationale
An increase in blood pressure is not typically a reason to stop the infusion of a thrombolytic agent in a patient with an acute myocardial infarction. While blood pressure should be monitored closely during thrombolytic therapy, an increase in blood pressure is not a common side effect.
Choice C rationale
A nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia is not typically a reason to stop the infusion of a thrombolytic agent in a patient with an acute myocardial infarction. While arrhythmias can occur during a myocardial infarction, they are not a common side effect of thrombolytic therapy.
Choice D rationale
A decreased level of consciousness can be a sign of many serious conditions, including bleeding in the brain. However, it is not typically a reason to stop the infusion of a thrombolytic agent unless it is accompanied by other signs of excessive bleeding.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Clubbed fingers can be a symptom of conditions such as endocarditis, a heart condition that involves inflammation of the inner lining of the heart.
Choice B rationale
While myocardial infarction (heart attack) is a serious condition, it is not typically associated with clubbing of the fingers.
Choice C rationale
Acute kidney injury does not typically cause clubbing of the fingers.
Choice D rationale
Chronic thrombophlebitis, a condition characterized by inflammation and blood clots in the veins, is not typically associated with clubbing of the fingers.
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