A 44-year-old female patient has been admitted for an abdominal abscess and sepsis.
She has been on mechanical ventilatory support for the last 2 weeks and is due to start ventilator weaning today.
She is currently on pressure support of 25 cm water (H2O) with no mandatory breaths and a fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) of 35%. What should the nurse do next?
Set up supplemental oxygen delivery.
Increase the fraction of inspired oxygen.
Gather supplies for extubation.
Place a nasogastric tube.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Setting up supplemental oxygen delivery is not the immediate action the nurse should take. The patient’s FiO2 is currently at 35%, which is within the normal range.
Choice B rationale
Increasing the fraction of inspired oxygen is not necessary at this time. The patient’s current FiO2 is within the normal range.
Choice C rationale
The nurse should gather supplies for extubation. As the patient is due to start ventilator weaning, preparing for extubation is the next logical step. This involves having all necessary equipment and personnel ready for the procedure.
Choice D rationale
Placing a nasogastric tube is not the immediate action the nurse should take. While a nasogastric tube can be used to provide nutrition and medication, it is not directly related to the process of ventilator weaning.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A client with a positive Mantoux test and sputum cultures positive for acid-fast bacillus (AFB) is indicative of tuberculosis, an airborne disease. This client would require a room with negative airflow, use of a particulate respirator mask, and adherence to airborne as well as standard precautions.
Choice B rationale
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by a mite. It is transmitted through direct skin-to-skin contact and does not require airborne precautions.
Choice C rationale
Scarlet fever is a bacterial illness that often presents with a rash and is associated with strep throat. It is spread by direct contact with mucus, saliva, or skin sores of a person infected with the bacteria. It does not require airborne precautions.
Choice D rationale
Herpes simplex II lesions are typically sexually transmitted and do not require airborne precautions. Standard precautions would be sufficient.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","F"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Assisting the client to the bathroom is appropriate as clonazepam can cause dizziness and unsteadiness, increasing the risk of falls.
Choice B rationale
Having an opioid agonist at the bedside is not necessary for a client starting clonazepam. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, not an opioid.
Choice C rationale
Providing oral care at least twice a day is generally good practice for all patients, but it’s not specifically related to clonazepam use.
Choice D rationale
Assessing mental status regularly is crucial as clonazepam can cause changes in mood and behavior.
Choice E rationale
Monitoring calcium levels is not typically required for a client starting clonazepam.
Choice F rationale
Screening for orthostatic hypotension is important as clonazepam can lower blood pressure, leading to dizziness and fainting when the client stands up.
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