The nurse on the medical-surgical unit is receiving a transfer report from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) nurse for a client who had an exploratory laparotomy.

The PACU nurse provides the following information: "1000 mL normal saline is infusing at 125 mL/hr into the left wrist with 600 mL remaining.

Ondansetron 4 mg intravenously every 8 hours is prescribed for nausea.

The last dose was administered at 0700.

The client is currently describing pain at a level 2 on a 0 to 10 pain scale.

The client has a prescription for hydromorphone 1 mg intravenously every 2 hours as needed for pain.

The last dose was administered at 1000." Which additional information should the PACU nurse report?

History of vomiting at home for 3 days prior to surgery.

Soft abdomen, absent bowel sounds, no bleeding on dressing.

Declining to take ice chips for complaints of dry mouth.

Peripheral pulses present with full range of motion of both legs.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale:

History of vomiting at home for 3 days prior to surgery. Rationale: This information is relevant to the client's surgical history and may impact their current condition. It is essential to inform the receiving nurse about this history to ensure appropriate postoperative care.

Choice B rationale:

Soft abdomen, absent bowel sounds, no bleeding on dressing. Rationale: While this information is important for assessing the client's postoperative status, it is less urgent than the history of vomiting. The abdominal assessment suggests normal findings after surgery.

Choice C rationale:

Declining to take ice chips for complaints of dry mouth. Rationale: While this information indicates the client's complaint of dry mouth, it is not as critical as the history of vomiting or the assessment of surgical outcomes.

Choice D rationale:

Peripheral pulses present with full range of motion of both legs. Rationale: This information is important but primarily related to the client's vascular and neurological status. It may not be as immediately relevant as the history of vomiting in the context of a recent surgery.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Step 1 is to convert the child’s weight from pounds to kilograms since the dosage is prescribed in mg/kg. We know that 1 kg is approximately 2.2 lbs. So, the child’s weight in kg is 55 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 25 kg (rounded to the nearest whole number for simplicity).

Step 2 is to calculate the total daily dosage. The prescription is for 150 mg/kg/day. So, the total daily dosage is 150 mg/kg/day × 25 kg = 3750 mg/day.

So, the correct answer is, after analysing all choices, the nurse should administer 3750 mg of cefotaxime each day.

A. "MDD is less severe than dysthymia but lasts for at least 2 years.". B. "Dysthymia is characterized by alternating episodes of mania and depression.". C. "Unlike MDD, dysthymia does not impair social or occupational functioning.". D. "Dysthymia is chronic and lasts for at least 2 years, but is less severe than MDD.". E. Anxiety.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

This statement is incorrect. Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) is typically more severe than dysthymia and is characterized by recurrent episodes of severe depression lasting at least two weeks.

Choice B rationale:

This statement is incorrect. Dysthymia is not characterized by alternating episodes of mania and depression. It is a chronic, low-grade depressive disorder.

Choice C rationale:

This statement is incorrect. Dysthymia can impair social and occupational functioning, similar to MDD. Both conditions can have a significant impact on a person's daily life.

Choice D rationale:

This statement is accurate. Dysthymia is a chronic depressive disorder that lasts for at least two years but is generally less severe than MDD. It is characterized by persistent, milder symptoms of depression.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A child who weighs 55 pounds receives a prescription for cefotaxime 150 mg/kg/day intravenously in divided doses every 6 hours. How many mg should the nurse administer each day?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client asks a nurse about the differences between major depressive disorder (MDD) and dysthymia. Which of the following responses by the nurse is accurate?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which problem reported by a client taking lovastatin requires the most immediate follow-up by the nurse?

A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

While caring for a client with a full-thickness burn covering 40% of the body surface area (BSA), the nurse observes purulent drainage at the wound. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should note which of the client's laboratory values?

A woman at 12 weeks' gestation comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit. After completing a health history, the nurse should discuss which topic about pregnancy at this initial visit?

A client who is receiving radiation treatment for laryngeal cancer has developed xerostomia and mucositis. The nurse determines the client has an imbalanced nutritional intake and is consuming less than body requirements. Which factor is the most likely cause for this problem?

The practical nurse (PN) is providing care for a client who is receiving an aminoglycoside to treat a bacterial infection. To assess for signs of ototoxicity, which action should the PN take?

The practical nurse (PN) learns that a client who is receiving chemotherapy has developed stomatitis. Which information should the PN obtain from the client during a focused assessment?