A 59-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer is taking tamoxifen to reduce recurrence risk. She is depressed and reports difficulty sleeping and hot flashes since initiating tamoxifen (a CYP2D6 substrate). Which of the following antidepressants is most appropriate?
Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
Venlafaxine (Effexor)
Bupropion (Wellbutrin)
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Duloxetine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) that can be used for depression and pain. However, it has moderate CYP2D6 inhibition, which may interfere with tamoxifen metabolism and reduce its efficacy.
Choice B reason: Venlafaxine is an SNRI with minimal CYP2D6 inhibition. It is effective for depression and also helps alleviate hot flashes, making it the most appropriate choice for this patient.
Choice C reason: Bupropion is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor and a strong CYP2D6 inhibitor. It can significantly reduce the conversion of tamoxifen to its active metabolite, endoxifen, thereby compromising its therapeutic effect.
Choice D reason: Fluoxetine is a potent CYP2D6 inhibitor and should be avoided in patients taking tamoxifen due to the risk of reducing its efficacy in preventing breast cancer recurrence.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hyperprolactinemia is a known side effect of many antipsychotics, especially those that block dopamine D2 receptors in the tuberoinfundibular pathway. However, thioridazine is not particularly associated with this effect as a long-term consequence requiring discontinuation.
Choice B reason: Priapism is a rare but serious side effect of some psychotropic medications, particularly those with alpha-adrenergic blocking properties. Thioridazine has minimal association with priapism and it is not a common reason for long-term discontinuation.
Choice C reason: Tardive dyskinesia is a well-known risk of long-term use of typical antipsychotics, including thioridazine. However, while significant, it is not the most specific or unique reason for discontinuing thioridazine in this case. The question emphasizes a serious long-term consequence that is more distinctive to thioridazine.
Choice D reason: Retinal pigmentation and retinal toxicity are serious long-term consequences of high-dose thioridazine, especially when doses exceed 800 mg/day. This can lead to irreversible visual impairment, including nyctalopia, blurred vision, and pigmentary changes in the retina. This rare but severe adverse effect is a key reason clinicians discontinue thioridazine in favor of safer alternatives.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Trauma-informed care emphasizes recognizing the widespread impact of trauma and integrating this understanding into all aspects of care. Clinicians are trained to identify signs of trauma and avoid practices that may retraumatize clients. This approach fosters safety, trust, and empowerment.
Choice B reason: While trauma can influence mental health, delaying diagnosis until trauma is ruled out is not a standard practice. Trauma-informed care encourages comprehensive assessment but does not prohibit diagnosis.
Choice C reason: Although ACE scores are valuable tools, assessing trauma at every visit is not a universal requirement. Trauma-informed care is more about creating a safe environment and being responsive to trauma history when relevant.
Choice D reason: Assuming everyone has experienced trauma may lead to overgeneralization and bias. Trauma-informed care promotes sensitivity and awareness, not assumptions. It focuses on individualized care and avoids pathologizing clients based on presumed trauma.
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