A 9-year-old boy is diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
No treatment, since this condition is self-limiting.
Macrolide antibiotics
Beta lactam antibiotics
Cephalosporin antibiotics
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: While some mild viral pneumonias may resolve without antibiotics, bacterial CAP in children typically requires treatment. Delaying therapy can lead to complications such as empyema or respiratory failure.
Choice B reason: Macrolides (e.g., azithromycin) are effective against atypical pathogens like Mycoplasma pneumoniae, which are more common in older children and adolescents. However, in younger children, typical bacterial pathogens like Streptococcus pneumoniae are more prevalent, making macrolides less ideal as first-line therapy.
Choice C reason: Beta lactam antibiotics, such as amoxicillin, are the first-line treatment for CAP in children due to their efficacy against Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common bacterial cause. They are well tolerated and widely recommended in pediatric guidelines.
Choice D reason: Cephalosporins may be used in cases of beta-lactam allergy or severe infection requiring hospitalization, but they are not typically first-line for uncomplicated CAP in otherwise healthy children.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: While schizophrenia often begins in late adolescence or early adulthood, this age range is more typical for males. Women tend to have a slightly later onset, often in their late twenties to early thirties.
Choice B reason: The typical age of onset for schizophrenia in women is between 25 and 35 years. This later onset compared to men may be influenced by hormonal factors such as estrogen, which has neuroprotective effects and may delay symptom emergence.
Choice C reason: The 16–20 age range is more characteristic of early-onset schizophrenia, which is rare and more frequently observed in males. It is not the typical age range for women.
Choice D reason: Onset between 40–50 years is considered late-onset schizophrenia, which is uncommon and more frequently seen in women, but it is not typical. Most cases in women begin earlier.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Minocycline is a tetracycline antibiotic and has not been established as a treatment for autonomic dysreflexia. While it has neuroprotective and anti-inflammatory properties in experimental models, it is not part of the clinical management protocol for autonomic dysreflexia.
Choice B reason: OnabotulinumtoxinA (Botox) has been used in patients with neurogenic bladder or spasticity, which can contribute to autonomic dysreflexia. It helps reduce bladder overactivity and prevent triggering episodes.
Choice C reason: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is commonly used to manage acute hypertension in autonomic dysreflexia. It reduces blood pressure quickly and is considered a first-line agent in emergent settings.
Choice D reason: Lidocaine may be used to suppress afferent stimuli during procedures such as catheterization, which can trigger autonomic dysreflexia. It helps block nociceptive input and prevent reflex sympathetic discharge.
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