A charge nurse on a medical-surgical unit is assisting with the emergency response plan following an external disaster in the community.
In anticipation of multiple client admissions, which of the following current clients should the nurse recommend for early discharge?
A client who is receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis.
A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty.
A client who has cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy.
A client who has COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty. A vertebroplasty is a procedure that injects cement into a fractured vertebra to help relieve pain and stabilize the spine. The recovery time for this procedure is usually short and the complications are rare.
Therefore, this client is most likely to be stable and ready for early discharge.
Choice A is wrong because a client who is receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) needs close monitoring of their blood levels and clotting factors. Heparin is a blood thinner that prevents the clots from getting bigger or breaking loose and traveling to the lungs, which can cause a life-threatening condition called pulmonary embolism (PE).
This client is not a good candidate for early discharge.
Choice C is wrong because a client who has cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy needs to be isolated in a special room to prevent exposure of others to radiation. A sealed implant is a small holder that contains a radioactive source that is placed inside or near the tumor to deliver high doses of radiation. This type of internal radiation therapy, also called brachytherapy, can last from several minutes to several days, depending on the type and dose of the radioactive source.
This client is not a good candidate for early discharge.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min has signs of respiratory distress and possible hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood).
COP
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Speak directly to the client. This is because the nurse should establish eye contact and rapport with the client, not the interpreter, and show respect for the client’s culture and autonomy. The nurse should also use simple and clear language, avoid jargon and slang, and speak in short sentences.
Choice A is wrong because using gestures to convey meaning can be confusing or offensive to some cultures. The nurse should avoid relying on nonverbal communication and ask the interpreter for clarification if needed.
Choice B is wrong because pausing in the middle of sentences can disrupt the flow of communication and make it harder for the interpreter to translate accurately. The nurse should pause at the end of each complete thought or sentence to allow the interpreter to relay the information.
Choice C is wrong because speaking slowly when talking to the interpreter can imply that the interpreter is incompetent or unintelligent. The nurse should speak at a normal pace and tone, and allow enough time for the interpreter to translate.
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