A child in admitted with severe RSV. The nurse would place the client in which transmission-based precaution?

airborne

contact

protective

droplet

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Airborne: Airborne precautions are required for diseases transmitted via tiny particles that remain suspended in the air, such as tuberculosis or measles. RSV is not transmitted through airborne particles and does not require this level of isolation.

B. Contact: RSV (respiratory syncytial virus) is primarily spread through direct contact with respiratory secretions or contaminated surfaces. Therefore, contact precautions such as gloves and gowns are essential to prevent transmission.

C. Protective: Protective (or reverse) precautions are used for immunocompromised patients to protect them from external pathogens, not to isolate contagious patients. RSV patients pose a risk to others, so protective precautions are not appropriate.

D. Droplet: While RSV can be spread via large respiratory droplets, the main route is contact. Droplet precautions may be used as an adjunct, but contact precautions are the primary recommended approach.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. 2–3 days:This is the correct time frame for interpreting a tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test). The induration response should be evaluated 48 to 72 hours after administration to ensure accurate results. Reading the test outside this window may lead to false negatives or unreliable interpretation.

B. 24 hours:Reading the skin test after only 24 hours may not allow sufficient time for the delayed hypersensitivity reaction to develop. The immune response that causes induration typically peaks at 48–72 hours.

C. 1 week:Waiting a full week exceeds the ideal time frame for interpretation. By this point, the reaction may have subsided, leading to an inaccurate or unreadable result. Follow-up must occur within 2–3 days.

D. 1 month:A return after one month is far too late to interpret the results. The test site would have long since returned to baseline, making accurate evaluation impossible and necessitating repeat testing.

A. Barrel chest and polycythemia B. Bronchovesicular lung sounds and bradypnea C. Unequal lung expansion and dyspnea D. Frothy bloody sputum and consolidation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Barrel chest and polycythemia: These findings are more characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, especially emphysema. They reflect long-term adaptations to hypoxia and air trapping, not the acute onset seen in pneumothorax.

B. Bronchovesicular lung sounds and bradypnea: Bronchovesicular sounds are normal in some lung areas, and bradypnea is not a common feature of pneumothorax. Pneumothorax often presents with decreased or absent breath sounds on the affected side and increased respiratory rate due to hypoxia.

C. Unequal lung expansion and dyspnea: Unequal chest expansion occurs because the collapsed lung on the affected side does not inflate properly. Dyspnea results from impaired gas exchange, making this the most accurate sign combination of pneumothorax.

D. Frothy bloody sputum and consolidation: These findings suggest pulmonary edema or pneumonia rather than pneumothorax. Frothy sputum is often seen in left-sided heart failure, and lung consolidation is not a feature of air in the pleural space.

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A child in admitted with severe RSV. The nurse would place the client in which transmission-based precaution?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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