A client at 28 weeks' gestation with intact membranes is admitted with the following findings: contractions every 5 minutes lasting 60 seconds, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced.Which of the following medications will the obstetrician likely order?
Magnesium sulfate.
Morphine sulfate.
Terbutaline.
Betamethasone.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Magnesium sulfate is primarily used for neuroprotection in preterm infants and to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia, not as a first-line tocolytic for preterm labor.
Choice B rationale
Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic used for pain management, not for inhibiting preterm labor contractions.
Choice C rationale
Terbutaline is a beta-agonist used as a tocolytic to relax uterine muscles and delay preterm labor. It helps decrease the intensity and frequency of contractions, making it suitable for managing preterm labor.
Choice D rationale
Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not for direct contraction inhibition.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While massaging the fundus and ensuring IV access are correct initial actions, methylergonovine (Methergine) is typically used for patients without hypertensive history due to its potential to raise blood pressure.
Choice B rationale
This option correctly identifies initial steps and appropriate medication. Carboprost-tromethamine (Hemabate) is effective in controlling postpartum hemorrhage and can be safely used in patients with hypertension when oxytocin is insufficient.
Choice C rationale
Quantifying blood loss is essential but it is not an immediate priority when the patient is showing signs of significant bleeding and instability. Immediate intervention to control bleeding takes precedence.
Choice D rationale
Assisting the patient to the restroom and then massaging the fundus overlooks the immediate need to control bleeding. This approach may delay necessary treatment and increase the risk of further hemorrhage.
Choice E rationale
Straight catheterization and oxytocin maintenance are part of the management of postpartum hemorrhage but do not address the immediate need to ensure uterine contraction and control active bleeding as effectively as the initial steps outlined in Choice B. .
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Placental abruption is characterized by abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and uterine tenderness. It does not cause dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, or loss of consciousness.
Choice B rationale
Uterine rupture typically presents with severe abdominal pain, abnormal fetal heart rate patterns, and vaginal bleeding. Shock can occur, but not frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.
Choice C rationale
Uterine inversion leads to pain, hemorrhage, and shock. It does not present with frothy sputum or sudden dyspnea.
Choice D rationale
Anaphylactoid syndrome (amniotic fluid embolism) results from amniotic fluid entering maternal circulation, causing an anaphylactic reaction. Symptoms include sudden dyspnea, hypotension, frothy sputum, and loss of consciousness, matching the described scenario. .
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