A client at 30 weeks of gestation is experiencing pre-term labor.

Which intervention should the nurse anticipate to suppress uterine contractions?

Administering intravenous fluids

Administering tocolytics

Administering corticosteroids

Administering antibiotics

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Tocolytics are a category of drugs used to delay the labor process. These may be used in situations when a pregnant person begins showing signs of preterm labor —which is any time before 37 weeks of completed pregnancy. Tocolytics may help delay labor by two to seven days.

Some possible explanations for the other choices are:

• Choice A. Administering intravenous fluids.

This is not a correct answer because intravenous fluids are not effective in suppressing uterine contractions. They may be used to correct dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, which can sometimes trigger preterm labor, but they are not a primary intervention for preterm labor.

• Choice C. Administering corticosteroids.

This is not a correct answer because corticosteroids are not tocolytics. They do not stop or slow down uterine contractions, but they help accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome and other complications of prematurity.

Corticosteroids are often given along with tocolytics, but they have a different function and mechanism of action.

• Choice D. Administering antibiotics.

This is not a correct answer because antibiotics are not tocolytics. They may be used to treat infections that can cause or complicate preterm labor, such as chorioamnionitis or group B streptococcus, but they do not directly affect uterine contractions.

Antibiotics may be given along with tocolytics, but they have a different function.

Nursing Test Bank

Test Bank #1: RN Pharmacology Exams Test Bank #2: RN Medical-Surgical Exams Test Bank #3: RN Fundamentals Exams Test Bank #4: RN Maternal-Newborn Exams Test Bank #5: RN Anatomy and Physiology Exams Test Bank #6: RN Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Test Bank #7: RN Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Test Bank #9: RN Adult Health Test Bank #10: RN Dosage Calculation Test Bank #11: RN Community Health Exams Test Bank #12: RN Psychology Exams Test Bank #13: RN Nursing Care Of Children Test Bank #14: RN Foundations of Nursing Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Exam #1: RN Comprehensive predictor 2023 proctored exam Exam #2: Ati rn vati comprehensive predictor proctored exam Exam #3: Ati Rn Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam 2023 Exam #4: Rn Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Proctored Exam - St. Joseph Exam #5: RN Comprehensive Predictor Proctored Exam (National U CA San Diego) Exam #6: Ati rn comprehensive predictor 2023 retake proctored exam Exam #7: RN Hesi Exit Proctored Exam Exam #8: Hesi RN Exit proctored exam Exam #9: Hesi rn exit proctored exam Exam #10: Hesi Rn compass exit B proctored exam

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

This is because assessing fetal heart rate is the most important action to take first when a client has prelabor rupture of membranes (PROM) at 34 weeks of gestation and oligohydramnios.Fetal heart rate can indicate fetal well-being, distress, or infection.Oligohydramnios can increase the risk of umbilical cord compression and fetal hypoxia.

Choice A is wrong because administering IV fluids is not the first priority in this situation.IV fluids may be given to prevent dehydration, enhance uterine blood flow, or augment labor, but they are not as urgent as assessing fetal heart rate.

Choice B is wrong because obtaining a urine specimen is not the first priority in this situation.A urine specimen may be obtained to check for infection, proteinuria, or glucose levels, but they are not as urgent as assessing fetal heart rate.

Choice D is wrong because inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the first priority in this situation.An indwelling urinary catheter may be inserted to monitor fluid balance, prevent bladder distension, or reduce the risk of infection, but they are not as urgent as assessing fetal heart rate.

Normal ranges for fetal heart rate are 110 to 160 beats per minute.Oligohydramnios is defined as an amniotic fluid index of less than 5 cm.

A. Regular uterine contractions occurring every 15 minutes B. Low back pain and pelvic pressure C. Change in vaginal discharge D. Rupture of membranes

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Regular uterine contractions occurring every 15 minutes.

This finding suggests that the client may have placental abruption, which is a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention.Placental abruption is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause heavy bleeding, pain, and fetal distress.

Choice B is wrong because low back pain and pelvic pressure are common symptoms of preterm labor, which is not as urgent as placental abruption.

Choice C is wrong because a change in vaginal discharge is not a specific sign of any complication and may be normal in pregnancy.

Choice D is wrong because rupture of membranes is not a priority finding in this case, unless it is associated with infection or cord prolapse.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A client at 30 weeks of gestation is experiencing pre-term labor. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate to suppress uterine contractions?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is admitting a client who is in pre-term labor at 34 weeks of gestation and has ruptured membranes and oligohydramnios. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client at 28 weeks of gestation presents with bleeding from the vagina. Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is assessing a client who is in pre-term labor and has received one dose of terbutaline subcutaneously. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving terbutaline for pre-term labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a potential adverse effect of the medication?

A nurse is teaching a client who is at risk for pre-term labor about the signs and symptoms to report to the provider. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is administering terbutaline to a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation and has pre-term labor. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect of this medication?

A nurse is educating a client who is at risk for pre-term labor about measures to prevent it from occurring. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-term labor. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the medication?

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who delivered a pre-term newborn at 34 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A nurse is caring for a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and reports lower abdominal cramping. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A client at 30 weeks of gestation is experiencing pre-term labor.

Which intervention should the nurse anticipate to suppress uterine contractions?