A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client who is in pre-term labor.
Which of the following findings indicates that the therapy is successful?
The client reports decreased uterine contractions
The client’s blood pressure decreases to within normal limits
The client’s deep tendon reflexes are 2+
The client’s urine output increases to more than 30 mL/hr
The Correct Answer is A
Magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic drug that inhibits uterine activity and relaxes smooth muscles. The goal of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client who is in pre-term labor is to stop or reduce the frequency and intensity of contractions.
Choice B is wrong because the client’s blood pressure decreases to within normal limits.
Magnesium sulfate is not an antihypertensive drug and does not lower blood pressure. It is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because the client’s deep tendon reflexes are 2+.
This is a normal finding and does not indicate the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy. A decrease or loss of deep tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, which is a serious complication that requires immediate intervention.
Choice D is wrong because the client’s urine output increases to more than 30 mL/hr.
This is also a normal finding and does not indicate the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy. A decrease in urine output may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity, which are both adverse effects of the drug.
The normal range for serum magnesium level is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L or 1.8 to 3 mg/dL. The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate management is 5 to 8 mg/dL.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause renal impairment and elevated serum creatinine levels in both the mother and the fetus.This can lead to oligohydramnios, reduced fetal urine output, and fetal renal failure.
Therefore, the nurse should monitor the serum creatinine levels of the client and the fetus as a potential complication of indomethacin.
Choice A is wrong because indomethacin does not affect the platelet count.It may increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effect, but it does not cause thrombocytopenia.
Choice C is wrong because indomethacin does not cause anemia or decrease the hematocrit.It may cause gastrointestinal bleeding or ulceration, which could lead to anemia, but this is not a common or direct effect of the medication.
Choice D is wrong because indomethacin does not cause hyperkalemia or increase the serum potassium levels.It may cause hyponatremia due to its effect on renal sodium excretion, but it does not affect potassium balance.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Terbutaline can cause low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and cardiac arrhythmias.
This is a potential adverse effect of the medication that should be reported to the provider.
Choice A is wrong because tachycardia is a common side effect of terbutaline that does not usually require medical attention.
Terbutaline works by stimulating beta-adrenergic receptors, which can increase the heart rate.
Choice B is wrong because hypotension is not a typical side effect of terbutaline.Terbutaline can actually cause elevated blood pressure in some cases.
Choice C is wrong because hyperglycemia is not a common side effect of terbutaline.Terbutaline can cause transient hyperglycemia in pregnant women, but this is not a reason to stop the medication.
Normal ranges for potassium are 3.5-5.0 mEq/L and for blood glucose are 70-110 mg/dL.
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