A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client who is in pre-term labor.
Which of the following findings indicates that the therapy is successful?
The client reports decreased uterine contractions
The client’s blood pressure decreases to within normal limits
The client’s deep tendon reflexes are 2+
The client’s urine output increases to more than 30 mL/hr
The Correct Answer is A
Magnesium sulfate is a tocolytic drug that inhibits uterine activity and relaxes smooth muscles. The goal of magnesium sulfate therapy for a client who is in pre-term labor is to stop or reduce the frequency and intensity of contractions.
Choice B is wrong because the client’s blood pressure decreases to within normal limits.
Magnesium sulfate is not an antihypertensive drug and does not lower blood pressure. It is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia or eclampsia.
Choice C is wrong because the client’s deep tendon reflexes are 2+.
This is a normal finding and does not indicate the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy. A decrease or loss of deep tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, which is a serious complication that requires immediate intervention.
Choice D is wrong because the client’s urine output increases to more than 30 mL/hr.
This is also a normal finding and does not indicate the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate therapy. A decrease in urine output may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity, which are both adverse effects of the drug.
The normal range for serum magnesium level is 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L or 1.8 to 3 mg/dL. The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate management is 5 to 8 mg/dL.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Tocolytics are a category of drugs used to delay the labor process.These may be used in situations when a pregnant person begins showing signs of preterm labor —which is any time before 37 weeks of completed pregnancy.Tocolytics may help delay labor by two to seven days.
Some possible explanations for the other choices are:
• Choice A. Administering intravenous fluids.
This is not a correct answer because intravenous fluids are not effective in suppressing uterine contractions.They may be used to correct dehydration or electrolyte imbalance, which can sometimes trigger preterm labor, but they are not a primary intervention for preterm labor.
• Choice C. Administering corticosteroids.
This is not a correct answer because corticosteroids are not tocolytics.They do not stop or slow down uterine contractions, but they help accelerate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome and other complications of prematurity.
Corticosteroids are often given along with tocolytics, but they have a different function and mechanism of action.
• Choice D. Administering antibiotics.
This is not a correct answer because antibiotics are not tocolytics.They may be used to treat infections that can cause or complicate preterm labor, such as chorioamnionitis or group B streptococcus, but they do not directly affect uterine contractions.
Antibiotics may be given along with tocolytics, but they have a different function.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Indomethacin is contraindicated for this client because it is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate or inflame the lining of the stomach and small intestine.This can worsen the client’s peptic ulcer disease, which is a condition where open sores develop on the inner surface of the stomach or small intestine due to acid erosion.
Indomethacin can also interact with other medications that the client may be taking for pre-term labor or peptic ulcer disease.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is not contraindicated for this client.It is a medication that can relax the smooth muscles of the uterus and prevent pre-term labor contractions.
Choice B is wrong because betamethasone is not contraindicated for this client.It is a corticosteroid that can help mature the fetal lungs and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in pre-term infants.
Choice D is wrong because terbutaline is not contraindicated for this client.
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