A nurse is reviewing the medication history of a client who is in pre-term labor and has a history of peptic ulcer disease.
The nurse should recognize that which of the following medications is contraindicated for this client?
Magnesium sulfate
Betamethasone
Indomethacin
Terbutaline
The Correct Answer is C
Indomethacin is contraindicated for this client because it is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can irritate or inflame the lining of the stomach and small intestine. This can worsen the client’s peptic ulcer disease, which is a condition where open sores develop on the inner surface of the stomach or small intestine due to acid erosion.
Indomethacin can also interact with other medications that the client may be taking for pre-term labor or peptic ulcer disease.
Choice A is wrong because magnesium sulfate is not contraindicated for this client. It is a medication that can relax the smooth muscles of the uterus and prevent pre-term labor contractions.
Choice B is wrong because betamethasone is not contraindicated for this client. It is a corticosteroid that can help mature the fetal lungs and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in pre-term infants.
Choice D is wrong because terbutaline is not contraindicated for this client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Regular uterine contractions occurring every 15 minutes.
This finding suggests that the client may have placental abruption, which is a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention.Placental abruption is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause heavy bleeding, pain, and fetal distress.
Choice B is wrong because low back pain and pelvic pressure are common symptoms of preterm labor, which is not as urgent as placental abruption.
Choice C is wrong because a change in vaginal discharge is not a specific sign of any complication and may be normal in pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because rupture of membranes is not a priority finding in this case, unless it is associated with infection or cord prolapse.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
True labor contractions cause cervical dilation and effacement.
This means that the cervix opens up and thins out to prepare for the baby’s passage through the birth canal.
Cervical changes can be measured by a pelvic exam.
Choice A is wrong because true labor contractions are regular and do not subside with rest.False labor contractions are irregular and may stop when you change position or activity level.
Choice B is wrong because false labor contractions are usually felt in the front of the abdomen, not in the lower back.True labor contractions may start in the back and radiate to the abdomen.
Choice D is wrong because false labor contractions do not increase in intensity with ambulation.True labor contractions may become stronger and closer together when you walk.
Normal ranges for cervical dilation and effacement vary depending on the stage of labor, but generally, full dilation is 10 cm and full effacement is 100%.
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