A client diagnosed with a PE is placed on a heparin drip. The nurse knows that she must monitor which of the following?
WBC
D-dimer
PT/INR
aPTT
The Correct Answer is D
A. WBC: The white blood cell count helps identify infection or inflammation but is not used to monitor the therapeutic effect of heparin. It does not provide information on anticoagulation status or bleeding risk.
B. D-dimer: D-dimer is useful for diagnosing or ruling out a PE initially but is not used to monitor treatment. Once anticoagulation has begun, D-dimer levels are not reliable indicators of therapeutic effectiveness.
C. PT/INR: PT/INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and PT/INR does not accurately reflect its anticoagulant effect.
D. aPTT: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct test to monitor heparin therapy. It measures the efficacy of the intrinsic clotting pathway and helps determine if the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Productive cough and crackles:These are hallmark signs of pneumonia. A productive cough indicates mucus in the airways, while crackles on auscultation suggest fluid and inflammation in the alveoli, consistent with lower respiratory tract infection.
B. Bradycardia and hypotension:Bradycardia is not typically associated with pneumonia. Hypotension can occur in severe or septic cases, but it is not specific or diagnostic. Neither finding is present in this case, nor do they support the pneumonia diagnosis.
C. Elevated WBC and hypertension:An elevated WBC count does support infection, but hypertension is not characteristic of pneumonia. Blood pressure changes are not diagnostic and may vary based on the individual’s baseline or stress response.
D. Decreased WBC & clear lung sounds:A low WBC count and clear lung sounds argue against an infectious process like pneumonia. These findings would more likely suggest that infection is absent or resolving, not active.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Physical therapy for homebound therapy services:Physical therapy is not routinely indicated in TB management unless the patient has specific mobility deficits. TB treatment focuses more on medication adherence and infection control rather than physical rehabilitation.
B. Occupational therapy for job retraining:There is no direct indication for job retraining in a TB patient unless the illness has caused long-term disability or affected occupational function, which is not suggested in this scenario.
C. Community social worker for Meals on Wheels:Meals on Wheels may assist with nutrition, but it is not specific to TB care. Social services do not directly ensure adherence to TB therapy, which is crucial for treatment success and public health safety.
D. Visiting Nurses for directly observed therapy:Directly observed therapy (DOT) ensures the client takes prescribed TB medications under supervision, which is essential to prevent noncompliance, reduce drug resistance, and promote cure. Visiting nurses are best positioned to provide this support during long-term outpatient TB treatment.
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