A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes suddenly reports feeling weak, shaky, and dizzy. What should be the nurse's initial response?
Perform a blood sugar analysis.
Have the client drink a 4-ounce (120-mL) glass of orange juice.
Administer 1 ampule of 50% dextrose intravenously.
Administer 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Performing a blood sugar analysis is important, but in the case of sudden symptoms such as weakness, shakiness, and dizziness, it is crucial to act quickly to address the potential hypoglycemia without delay.
B. Having the client drink a 4-ounce glass of orange juice is the most appropriate initial response as it provides a quick source of glucose to alleviate symptoms of hypoglycemia, which is a common concern in clients with type 1 diabetes experiencing these symptoms.
C. Administering 1 ampule of 50% dextrose intravenously is an effective treatment for hypoglycemia but is typically reserved for severe cases where the patient is unable to consume oral glucose or is unconscious.
D. Administering 10 units of regular insulin subcutaneously would exacerbate the problem by lowering blood sugar further and is contraindicated in a patient experiencing hypoglycemic symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While historical context is useful, the development of antimicrobials primarily began in the early 20th century, notably with penicillin discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928.
B. This statement is incorrect; fluoroquinolones primarily inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis rather than directly affecting the cell wall.
C. Selective toxicity is a principle of antimicrobial action but does not directly explain how a specific antimicrobial works therapeutically.
D. Penicillin specifically interferes with the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell lysis and death of the bacteria, which is a fundamental mechanism of action for this antibiotic.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. An allergic reaction is a possible response to medication, but it is not directly related to doubling the dosage.
B. Anaphylactic reaction is a severe and rapid allergic response; while possible, it is not the most likely consequence of an overdose in this context.
C. Poisoning is a likely concern when a client takes double the prescribed dosage of analgesics, especially if the medication has a narrow therapeutic index or is known to cause toxicity at high doses.
D. Sedative effects could occur depending on the analgesic used, but poisoning is a more pressing concern following an overdose.
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