A clinic nurse has been assigned a 49-year-old female client who has a history of diabetes. A recent diagnosis of hypertension has been made, and the client has been prescribed a hydrochlorothiazide and metoprolol. The client will be scheduled to return to the clinic once a month for the next 6 months. A priority action by the nurse will be to:
question the client about her dietary intake.
monitor the client's blood pressure.
weigh the client.
monitor the client's respiratory rate.
The Correct Answer is B
A. While dietary intake is important, especially regarding sodium and fluid balance, it is not the highest priority compared to monitoring blood pressure.
B. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is essential to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed antihypertensive medications and to ensure the client is within the target range for managing her hypertension.
C. Weighing the client is important for monitoring fluid retention, especially with hydrochlorothiazide, but it is secondary to direct blood pressure monitoring.
D. Monitoring the respiratory rate is generally less critical in this scenario unless there are specific concerns related to medication side effects or respiratory conditions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Reye syndrome is correct because administering aspirin to children, especially during viral illnesses like the flu, can lead to this serious and potentially fatal condition characterized by acute encephalopathy and liver failure.
B. Excess antiplatelet action is incorrect; while aspirin does have antiplatelet effects, this is not the primary concern in a child with a viral illness.
C. Asthma is incorrect; while some individuals with asthma may have sensitivity to aspirin, it is not specifically related to the child's flulike illness.
D. Salicylate poisoning is incorrect; while high doses of aspirin can lead to toxicity, the immediate risk in the context of flu-like illness is Reye syndrome, which is a more specific concern.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While historical context is useful, the development of antimicrobials primarily began in the early 20th century, notably with penicillin discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928.
B. This statement is incorrect; fluoroquinolones primarily inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis rather than directly affecting the cell wall.
C. Selective toxicity is a principle of antimicrobial action but does not directly explain how a specific antimicrobial works therapeutically.
D. Penicillin specifically interferes with the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell lysis and death of the bacteria, which is a fundamental mechanism of action for this antibiotic.
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