A clinic nurse has been assigned a 49-year-old female client who has a history of diabetes. A recent diagnosis of hypertension has been made, and the client has been prescribed a hydrochlorothiazide and metoprolol. The client will be scheduled to return to the clinic once a month for the next 6 months. A priority action by the nurse will be to:

A. Performing a blood sugar analysis is important, but the immediate symptoms indicate hypoglycemia, and rapid treatment is necessary before confirming blood sugar levels.

B. Having the client drink a glass of orange juice provides a quick source of glucose to counteract hypoglycemia, which is the most appropriate initial response to address the client's symptoms.

C. Administering 1 ampule of 50% dextrose intravenously is an appropriate intervention for severe hypoglycemia but is not the initial step for a client who can still take oral carbohydrates.

D. Administering insulin would worsen the client's condition by lowering blood sugar levels further, which is not indicated in this scenario.

A. An antipsychotic agent, particularly first-generation antipsychotics, can cause extrapyramidal symptoms such as tremors, drooling, gait changes, and spasms due to their dopamine-blocking effects in the brain.

B. An antidiabetic agent does not typically cause these neurological symptoms; its primary effects are related to glucose metabolism.

C. A general anesthetic is used to induce unconsciousness and does not generally result in muscular tremors or drooling.

D. An anticholinergic agent can cause side effects like dry mouth and constipation but does not typically lead to the muscular symptoms described; in fact, it may reduce drooling.