A client has a new prescription for butorphanol (Stadol). Which of the following options is a complication of this medication?

Insomnia

Abstinence syndrome

Migraines

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A.   Butorphanol (Stadol) is an opioid agonist-antagonist used for pain management. It is more likely to cause drowsiness or sedation rather than insomnia.
B.   Abstinence syndrome, or withdrawal symptoms, can occur in patients who are dependent on opioids. Butorphanol can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in individuals who are dependent on opioid agonists.
C.   Migraines are not a typical complication of butorphanol. However, butorphanol is used for pain relief, which can sometimes include migraines, but it does not cause them.

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Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

A. "This medication is also used to treat male pattern baldness.": Sildenafil is not indicated for treating male pattern baldness; it is used for erectile dysfunction.
B. "Complications of this medication are priapism, sudden hearing loss, and myocardial infarction.": This is correct, as sildenafil can cause these serious side effects.
C. "You should take this medication 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity.": This is correct, as sildenafil is typically taken within this time frame.
D. "A complication of this medication is incontinence.": Incontinence is not a known complication of sildenafil use.

A. Oral (PC) B. Intravenous (IV) C. Intramuscular (IM) D. Subcutaneous (SC)

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Oral (PC): Naloxone undergoes rapid first-pass metabolism when taken orally, making it ineffective via this route.
B. Intravenous (IV): This is an effective route for naloxone administration.
C. Intramuscular (IM): This is also an effective route for naloxone administration.
D. Subcutaneous (SC): Naloxone can also be administered subcutaneously.

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A client has a new prescription for butorphanol (Stadol). Which of the following options is a complication of this medication?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is newly diagnosed with erectile dysfunction and has been prescribed sildenafil (Viagra). Which of the following statements should the nurse NOT include in her client education about sildenafil (Viagra)? (Select All That Apply.).

Correct Answer is ["A","D"]

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer naloxone (Narcan). The nurse understands that this medication has a rapid first-pass inactivation. The nurse understands that naloxone (Narcan) be administered in all of the following routes EXCEPT for:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which of the following routes is affected by the first-pass effect?

A nurse is providing an in-service on the complications of naloxone (Narcan), such as abstinence syndrome. Which of the following signs and symptoms should the nurse include in her in-service about abstinence syndrome?

The nurse is reviewing a pregnant client's prescribed medications that are currently due for administration at 0900. The nurse noticed that the physician ordered misoprostol to prevent stomach ulcers. What is the next action that the nurse should take?

A nurse is teaching a client who has osteoporosis and a new prescription for alendronate (Fosamax). Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

A client is newly diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) Which of the following medications used to treat BPH? (Select All That Apply]

The nurse is educating a client about taking a tetracycline along with an antacid. The nurse explains to the client not to take these two medications because the antacid can reduce the absorption of the tetracycline. When one drug reduces the effect of another, it is:

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone (Aldactone). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?