A client has a radiation implant inserted for treatment of cervical cancer. Which nurse should be assigned to provide personal care while the radiation source is in the client? The:
60-year-old nurse who is also assigned to provide care to two other clients with internal radiation.
28-year-old pregnant nurse who has special expertise in oncology.
30-year-old female nurse who is experienced with internal radiation.
35-year-old male nurse who has never worked with a client receiving internal radiation.
The Correct Answer is D
A. This nurse is already exposed to a significant amount of radiation and should not be assigned to care for another client with an internal radiation implant.
B. Pregnant women should avoid exposure to radiation. This nurse should not be assigned to care for a client with an internal radiation implant.
C. While this nurse has experience with internal radiation, she is still exposed to radiation. It is preferable to assign a nurse who has no prior exposure to internal radiation.
D. This nurse has no prior exposure to internal radiation and is therefore the best candidate to provide care to the client.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Many women diagnosed with ovarian cancer are indeed older, but the presence of other health problems is not a primary factor in explaining the high death rates. The key issue is more related to late- stage diagnosis rather than age alone.
B. While some ovarian cancer cells can develop resistance to treatment, it is not universally true for all cases. The high mortality rate is more often due to the late stage at which the cancer is diagnosed rather than inherent resistance to treatment. Thus, this option does not fully explain the high death rates.
C. Ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms that can be easily overlooked in the early stages, such as bloating, abdominal discomfort, or changes in bowel habits. As a result, many women do not receive a diagnosis until the cancer has progressed to a more advanced stage, contributing significantly to the high mortality rates associated with the disease.
D. While it is true that the ovaries are located deep in the pelvis, the main treatment for ovarian cancer typically involves surgery and chemotherapy rather than radiation therapy. Radiation is not a primary treatment for this cancer type, and this statement does not accurately reflect why the death rates are high.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This value is within the normal range for adult males (14-17.3 g/dL) and borderline for females (11.7- 15.5 g/dL). While the specific context of the patient (e.g., gender) matters, generally, a hemoglobin level of 14 g/dL would not typically cause concern.
B. A platelet count of 150,000/mm³ is at the lower limit of normal (150,000-450,000/mm³). While this may be concerning in certain clinical contexts, it is still within the acceptable range and would not typically raise alarm for a post-op nephrectomy patient unless there are other indications of bleeding or clotting issues.
C. This white blood cell count is elevated (normal range is 4.5-11.1 x 10³/mm³). An elevated WBC count can indicate an infection, inflammation, or a response to surgery, which is particularly concerning post- operatively. This result would warrant further investigation to rule out infection, which is critical for recovery.
D. The neutrophil percentage of 59% is within the normal range (typically around 40-70% for total WBCs). While it is slightly elevated, it is not concerning on its own without additional context, especially since it may be elevated in response to surgery or stress.
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