A client has an exaggerated convex curvature of the thoracic spine. What is this condition called?
Diaphysis
Scoliosis
Lordosis
Kyphosis
The Correct Answer is D
Kyphosis is a spinal deformity characterized by an abnormal posterior convexity of the thoracic vertebrae, often resulting from vertebral compression fractures or degenerative disc disease. This sagittal plane misalignment can lead to pulmonary restriction and chronic back pain as the center of gravity shifts anteriorly. In geriatric populations, it is commonly associated with bone demineralization and is colloquially known as a dowager's hump.

A. Diaphysis: This term refers to the elongated shaft of a long bone, such as the femur or humerus, rather than a spinal curvature. It consists primarily of compact bone surrounding a central marrow cavity. Diaphysis is an anatomical structure involved in skeletal support and hematopoiesis, not a pathological condition of the vertebral column.
B. Scoliosis: Scoliosis is a lateral or sideways deviation of the spine that typically occurs during the growth spurt just before puberty. It involves a rotational component of the vertebrae, often resulting in uneven shoulders or hips. While it is a spinal curvature, it occurs in the coronal plane, whereas the question describes a convex curvature in the thoracic region.
C. Lordosis: Lordosis, or "swayback," is an exaggerated anterior concavity of the lumbar or cervical spine. It is frequently seen in pregnant women or individuals with significant abdominal obesity as the body compensates for an altered center of mass. This condition affects the lower back, in contrast to the thoracic convexity described in the question.
D. kyphosis: This is the correct clinical term for the "hunchback" appearance caused by the angulation of the thoracic spine. It may be postural or structural, with structural cases requiring bracing or surgical correction to prevent progressive spinal cord compression. Identification is crucial for managing underlying osteoporosis and preventing further vertebral collapse.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Assessing a client's psychomotor skills requires a return demonstration to ensure competency and safety in a home environment. This method allows the nurse to observe for errors in aseptic technique, dosage accuracy, and anatomical site selection. It provides immediate feedback and confirms that the client has moved from theoretical knowledge to practical proficiency.
A. Observe the client drawing up and administering the insulin: This is the gold standard for evaluating psychomotor learning and ensuring the client can perform the task safely. It allows the nurse to verify the accuracy of the dose and the correctness of the injection technique. Observing the actual performance is the only way to confirm the client's physical readiness for discharge.
B. Ask the client to describe the process in detail: Verbalizing the steps assesses cognitive knowledge but does not guarantee the client has the manual dexterity to perform the injection. A client may understand the theory but struggle with the mechanical aspects of needle handling or vial manipulation. This method is insufficient for a final competency assessment before independent home care.
C. Review the client's first hemoglobin A1C result after discharge: The A1C test reflects the average blood glucose over the preceding 90 days and is not a measure of injection technique. Using this metric would take months to provide data and would not prevent immediate medication errors post-discharge. It is a long-term management tool rather than an assessment of immediate clinical skill.
D. Provide a health education session reviewing the main points of insulin delivery: This is a teaching intervention rather than an assessment of the client's ability. While education is necessary, it is a passive process for the client and does not provide proof that they can perform the task. Assessment must follow education to ensure the information was correctly synthesized and can be applied.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Glargine is a long-acting insulin analog formulated with a low pH of 4, which causes it to precipitate into micro-crystals upon subcutaneous injection. This allows for a slow, constant release into the systemic circulation, providing a stable basal concentration for approximately 24 hours. Mixing this acidic solution with other insulins shifts the pH, causing unpredictable precipitation and altering the pharmacokinetics of both medications.
A. Do not mix with other insulins: The acidic nature of glargine is essential for its unique extended-release mechanism. If it is mixed in the same syringe with a neutral pH insulin, like regular or NPH, the glargine may precipitate prematurely or become cloudy. This compromises the basal coverage and can lead to dangerous fluctuations in glycemic control.
B. Administer the total daily dosage in two doses: Glargine is specifically engineered to provide a 24-hour duration of action with a single daily injection. While a small subset of patients may require split dosing for better coverage, the standard teaching is a once-daily administration. This promotes patient adherence and mimics the natural basal secretion of the pancreas.
C. It is rapidly absorbed and has a fast onset of action: Unlike bolus insulins, glargine has an onset of approximately 1 to 2 hours and lacks a clinical peak. It is categorized as long-acting and is never used for acute prandial correction of blood glucose levels. Rapidly absorbed insulins, such as lispro or aspart, are used for mealtime coverage.
D. Draw up the drug first, then add regular insulin: Since glargine cannot be mixed with any other insulin, the sequence of drawing up medications in a single syringe is irrelevant. Each medication must be administered in a separate syringe at different anatomical sites. Attempting to combine them in one syringe will destroy the molecular stability of the glargine.
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