A client has been prescribed raloxifene. As the nurse, you know that raloxifene is used to treat:.
Migraines.
Hypertension.
Osteoporosis.
Heart disease.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat migraines. It is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that primarily acts on bone tissues, estrogen receptors, and has anti-estrogenic effects in the breast, which may reduce the risk of breast cancer.
Choice B rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) It is primarily indicated for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct choice. Raloxifene is indicated for the treatment and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps increase bone density and reduces the risk of fractures associated with osteoporosis.
Choice D rationale:
Raloxifene is not used to treat heart disease. While it may have some cardiovascular benefits due to its effects on cholesterol levels, it is not a primary medication for heart disease management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should plan to administer Ampicillin to the client with a group B streptococcus (GBS) B-hemolytic infection. Ampicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment for intrapartum prophylaxis in GBS-positive pregnant women. It helps prevent the transmission of the bacteria from the mother to the newborn, reducing the risk of early-onset GBS infection in the infant.
Choice B rationale:
Azithromycin is not the appropriate choice for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. While Azithromycin is effective against certain bacteria, it is not the recommended antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis in labor. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred medication in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
Ceftriaxone is not the appropriate medication for treating GBS B-hemolytic infection during labor. Ceftriaxone belongs to the cephalosporin class of antibiotics and is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. Ampicillin or Penicillin is the preferred choice.
Choice D rationale:
Acyclovir is an antiviral medication and is not indicated for the treatment of GBS B-hemolytic infection. GBS is a bacterial infection, and antiviral medications like Acyclovir do not have an effect on bacteria.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
This statement is incorrect. A nonstress test does not involve receiving medication through an
IV. It is a simple and non-invasive test that monitors the baby's heart rate in response to its movements.
Choice B rationale:
This is the correct choice. A nonstress test typically takes about 30 minutes to complete. During the test, the client will have a fetal heart rate monitor placed on her abdomen to measure the baby's heart rate while it is moving.
Choice C rationale:
This statement is incorrect. There is no requirement for the client to fast or restrict food and drink before a nonstress test. The client can eat and drink as usual before the procedure.
Choice D rationale:
This statement is incorrect. A nonstress test is not used to determine if the baby's lungs are mature. Instead, it assesses the baby's heart rate patterns in response to its own movements, which helps evaluate the baby's overall well-being in the third trimester of pregnancy.
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