A client has been prescribed zolpidem (Ambien) for insomnia. The client's spouse reports that the patient drives at night but does not remember it in the morning. Which of the following explains this behavior?

This is a side effect of this drug which will go away after 2 weeks.

This is a complex sleep behavior with memory loss associated with this drug.

This is a severe allergic reaction of this drug.

This means the drug is at toxic levels in your system.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Zolpidem can cause complex sleep behaviors like sleep-driving, and this side effect does not necessarily resolve after 2 weeks.
B. Zolpidem can lead to complex sleep behaviors, including sleep-driving, with associated memory loss.
C. Severe allergic reactions are not typically associated with memory loss and sleep-driving.
D. Toxic levels would present with more severe symptoms and are less likely to be solely characterized by sleep-driving.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

A. Nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator used for rapid reduction of severe hypertension.
B. Heparin is an anticoagulant and not primarily used for immediate blood pressure control.
C. Labetalol is a beta-blocker used in hypertensive emergencies to rapidly lower blood pressure.
D. Nitroglycerin, a vasodilator, is also used to manage chest pain and lower blood pressure in hypertensive emergencies.
E. Digoxin is primarily used for heart failure and arrhythmias, not for acute blood pressure control.

A. "I will notify the physician." B. "You may have become addicted to this drug." C. "This is part of your schizophrenia disease process." D. "This is normal while taking this drug and will soon go away."

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Muscle spasms, especially in the face and neck, can be a sign of tardive dyskinesia or acute dystonia, which are serious side effects of chlorpromazine (an antipsychotic). It is important to notify the physician for further evaluation and potential treatment adjustments.
B. Addiction is not a common issue with chlorpromazine; muscle spasms are more likely to be side effects rather than signs of addiction.
C. Muscle spasms are not part of the schizophrenia disease process but are rather side effects of the medication.
D. These symptoms are not considered normal and require medical assessment. They may not resolve on their own and could need intervention.

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A client has been prescribed zolpidem (Ambien) for insomnia. The client's spouse reports that the patient drives at night but does not remember it in the morning. Which of the following explains this behavior?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient has been brought to the emergency department by ambulance experiencing blood pressure 200/130 mmHg with chest pain. The nurse anticipates which of the following medications for immediate treatment of hypertension (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is on drug treatment (chlorpromazine) and states, "I recently started having muscle spasms in my face and neck." Which of the following is the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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