A client has undergone a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). He is currently being treated with continuous bladder irrigation (CBI) and is complaining of an increase in the severity of bladder spasms. Which intervention should the nurse perform first?

Perform a bladder scan.

Stop the irrigation and note findings in the chart.

Administer an oral analgesic.

Ensure that the catheter is draining properly.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason
Performing a bladder scan can help determine the volume of urine in the bladder and assess for urinary retention, which could contribute to bladder spasms. However, this is not typically the first intervention. The priority is to ensure that the catheter is patent and draining correctly, as blockages can cause immediate discomfort and increased spasms

Choice B Reason
Stopping the irrigation could be considered if there is a concern that the CBI is contributing to the spasms. However, this would not be the first action taken. It is essential first to assess the catheter's patency and the flow of the irrigation to rule out any obstruction or kinking causing the spasms.

Choice C Reason
Administering an oral analgesic may help alleviate the discomfort caused by bladder spasms, but it does not address the underlying cause. Pain relief is important, but the initial step should be to check for and resolve any mechanical issues with the catheter system that could be causing the spasms.

Choice D Reason
Ensuring that the catheter is draining properly is the first and most crucial intervention. If the catheter is blocked or kinked, it can cause bladder distention and increased spasms. Checking the catheter's patency and the flow of irrigation can quickly resolve the issue and provide relief to the patient. If the catheter is found to be obstructed, resolving the blockage can decrease the severity of the spasms and improve the patient's comfort.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason
Thiamine, or vitamin B1, is essential for brain function and the metabolism of carbohydrates. In the context of high blood alcohol levels, thiamine is administered to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy, a serious neurological disorder. This condition is often precipitated by a thiamine deficiency, which can be exacerbated by alcohol abuse. Alcohol consumption can impair thiamine absorption and utilization, leading to depleted stores. Wernicke's encephalopathy is characterized by symptoms such as confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, and if left untreated, it can progress to Korsakoff syndrome, a chronic and debilitating condition.

Choice B Reason
While alcoholic hepatitis is a concern in individuals with excessive alcohol intake, thiamine is not specifically used to prevent this condition. Alcoholic hepatitis is inflammation of the liver due to alcohol abuse, and its prevention primarily involves abstinence from alcohol, nutritional support, and medical management of liver inflammation. Thiamine does not play a direct role in preventing liver inflammation but is crucial for overall nutritional replenishment in individuals with alcohol use disorder.

Choice C Reason
Rehydration is indeed important for clients with high blood alcohol levels; however, thiamine does not serve this purpose. Rehydration typically involves the administration of intravenous fluids to restore fluid balance and electrolytes. Thiamine is not a rehydrating agent but is given to prevent neurological complications associated with thiamine deficiency, which can be seen in individuals with chronic alcoholism.

Choice D Reason
Preventing pancreatitis is not the primary reason for administering thiamine in this scenario. Pancreatitis, an inflammation of the pancreas, can be associated with chronic alcohol abuse, but thiamine is not used as a preventative treatment for this condition. The management of pancreatitis involves addressing the underlying causes, supportive care, and sometimes hospitalization for more severe cases.

A. Increased blood glucose levels. B. Increased potassium levels. C. Increased white blood cell count. D. Increased ketones in the urine.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:
Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause hyperglycemia, especially in clients with diabetes. The nurse should monitor blood glucose levels because prednisone can increase insulin resistance and hepatic glucose production, leading to elevated blood glucose levels. Normal fasting blood glucose levels range from 70 to 99 mg/dL, and for individuals with diabetes, maintaining blood glucose levels within the target range set by their healthcare provider is crucial to prevent complications.

Choice B reason:
While corticosteroids can affect electrolyte balance, they typically cause a decrease in potassium levels, not an increase. Therefore, monitoring for hypokalemia, rather than hyperkalemia, would be more appropriate when a patient is on prednisone. The normal range for serum potassium is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L.

Choice C reason:
Corticosteroids like prednisone can cause leukocytosis, an increase in white blood cell count, as part of their immunosuppressive action. However, this is generally not a harmful side effect unless accompanied by infection or other complications. The normal range for white blood cell count is approximately 4,500 to 11,000 cells per microliter.

Choice D reason:
Increased ketones in the urine, or ketonuria, is not a typical side effect of prednisone. Ketonuria is more commonly associated with uncontrolled diabetes, particularly Type 1 diabetes, when there is an insulin deficiency and the body resorts to fat breakdown, leading to ketone production.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client was admitted to the emergency department with slurred speech and impaired motor coordination. The blood alcohol level is over 300 mg/dL. The physician orders thiamine for the client. The nurse understands that the physician ordered thiamine to:

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client with Type 2 diabetes, controlled with diet and metformin, also has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). During an exacerbation of COPD, the client is prescribed prednisone to control inflammation. For which side effect should the nurse monitor the client?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client with hypertension reports experiencing blurred vision intermittently over the last few weeks. What should the nurse explain to the client?

After administering furosemide 20 mg PO to a client diagnosed with hypertension and peripheral edema, which finding would best indicate that the therapeutic effect of the medication has been achieved?

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client newly diagnosed with hypertension. Which food item(s) should the nurse instruct the client to avoid in order to assist In controlling the blood pressure? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

Which intervention by a psychiatric nurse implements the ethical principle of autonomy?

Which medication should the nurse question for a client admitted with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

A client is receiving gentamicin and vancomycin IV for urosepsis. Which diagnostic study result should the nurse report to the primary care practitioner?

The client has passed a renal calculus that is determined to be composed of calcium oxalate. Which discharge instruction should be given by the nurse?

A nurse is discussing gout with a client who is concerned about developing the disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as risk factors for this disease? (Select all that apply)