A client in preterm labor is managed with terbutaline.
Which will a nurse need to consider in planning care for this client?

Once the client’s intravenous terbutaline is discontinued, she will be taught to self-administer the drug parenterally.

The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.

The client will remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.

After 12 hours without contractions, the client will ambulate in the hallway.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

The correct answer is choice B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.

This is because terbutaline is a medication that can be used to suppress preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle. It can be given subcutaneously or intravenously for acute episodes of preterm labor, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of serious maternal and fetal adverse effects. Therefore, if the client’s condition stabilizes, the administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral, which has a lower bioavailability and less systemic effects.

Choice A is wrong because terbutaline is not usually self-administered parenterally by the client at home. It requires a trained health professional to give it as a shot under the skin or through a vein.

Choice C is wrong because the client does not need to remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.

This is an unnecessary restriction that may increase the client’s stress and anxiety.

The client should be encouraged to have social support and emotional comfort during this time.

Choice D is wrong because the client should not ambulate in the hallway after 12 hours without contractions.

This may stimulate uterine activity and cause a recurrence of preterm labor.

The client should follow the provider’s instructions on bed rest and activity limitations.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nonstress test (NST) is a test in pregnancy that measures fetal heart rate and reaction to movement.Your pregnancy care provider performs a nonstress test to make sure the fetus is healthy and getting enough oxygen.It’s safe and painless, and gets its name because it puts no stress (nonstress) on you or the fetus.

Choice A is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure the mother’s ability to tolerate the discomfort of labor.A stress test is a different procedure that involves stimulating contractions and monitoring how the fetus responds.

Choice B is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure fetal lie, which is the position of the fetus in the uterus.

Fetal lie is usually determined by ultrasound or physical examination.

Choice D is wrong because a nonstress test does not measure maternal readiness for labor.A nonstress test typically happens after 28 weeks of pregnancy, when fetal heart rate starts reacting to movements.

Maternal readiness for labor is assessed by other factors, such as cervical dilation and effacement.

A. "The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time." B. "Have you been running a fever?". C. “It sounds as if you have begun to ovulate again." D. "Are you taking iron supplements?".

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A: “The discharge that you are describing is normal at this time.” This is because the client is experiencing lochia serosa, which is a brownish discharge that occurs from about day 4 to day 10 postpartum.

Lochia serosa is composed of old blood, serum, leukocytes, and tissue debris.

It indicates that the placental site is healing and the uterus is involuting.

Choice B is wrong because fever is a sign of infection, not normal lochia.

Choice C is wrong because ovulation usually does not resume until 6 weeks postpartum for nonbreastfeeding women and later for breastfeeding women.

Choice D is wrong because iron supplements do not affect lochia color or amount.

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A client in preterm labor is managed with terbutaline. Which will a nurse need to consider in planning care for this client?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with a history of diabetes mellitus (T1 D) is 32 weeks pregnant.The client returns to the clinic for a scheduled ultrasound and non-stress test. What should the nurse expect the non-stress test to determine?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A client in preterm labor is managed with terbutaline.
Which will a nurse need to consider in planning care for this client?