A client in preterm labor is managed with terbutaline.
Which will a nurse need to consider in planning care for this client?
Once the client’s intravenous terbutaline is discontinued, she will be taught to self-administer the drug parenterally.
The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
The client will remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
After 12 hours without contractions, the client will ambulate in the hallway.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. The administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral.
This is because terbutaline is a medication that can be used to suppress preterm labor by relaxing the uterine smooth muscle. It can be given subcutaneously or intravenously for acute episodes of preterm labor, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of serious maternal and fetal adverse effects. Therefore, if the client’s condition stabilizes, the administration route of terbutaline will be changed from intravenous to oral, which has a lower bioavailability and less systemic effects.
Choice A is wrong because terbutaline is not usually self-administered parenterally by the client at home. It requires a trained health professional to give it as a shot under the skin or through a vein.
Choice C is wrong because the client does not need to remain in a private room without visitors until she has been without contractions for 48 hours.
This is an unnecessary restriction that may increase the client’s stress and anxiety.
The client should be encouraged to have social support and emotional comfort during this time.
Choice D is wrong because the client should not ambulate in the hallway after 12 hours without contractions.
This may stimulate uterine activity and cause a recurrence of preterm labor.
The client should follow the provider’s instructions on bed rest and activity limitations.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Dryness and flaking of the skin on the hands and feet.This is because a newborn with a gestational age of 42 weeks is considered post-mature and has lost the protective vernix caseosa that covers the skin of most newborns.The skin of a post-mature newborn is also more exposed to the amniotic fluid, which can cause it to peel and crack.
Choice A is wrong because sole creases that cover only the anterior one-third of the foot are characteristic of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.
Choice B is wrong because vernix caseosa is abundant in preterm newborns and decreases as gestational age increases.A post-mature newborn would have little or no vernix caseosa on the skin.
Choice D is wrong because a large amount of fine, downy hair (lanugo) on the back and shoulders is also typical of a preterm newborn, not a post-mature one.Lanugo usually disappears by 36 weeks of gestation.A post-mature newborn would have little or no lanugo on the body.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is choice D. Decreased respirations.Magnesium sulfate is a medication that can causerespiratory depression, which means it can slow down or stop breathing.
This is a serious side effect that needs to be monitored closely by the nurse.
Choice A is wrong because increased Babinski reflex is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate.
The Babinski reflex is a normal response in infants, but abnormal in adults.
It occurs when the big toe bends upward and the other toes fan out when the sole of the foot is stroked.Magnesium sulfate can causepoor reflexes, but not specifically the Babinski reflex.
Choice B is wrong because diarrhea is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate when given intravenously or intramuscularly.Diarrhea can occur when magnesium sulfate is taken orally as a laxative, but that is not the case in this question.
Choice C is wrong because tetany is not a side effect of magnesium sulfate.
Tetany is a condition that causes muscle spasms and cramps due to low levels of calcium in the blood.Magnesium sulfate can actually causehypocalcemia, which means low levels of calcium in the blood, but this does not usually result in tetany.Tetany is more likely to occur when there is low magnesium in the blood, which is calledhypomagnesemia.
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