A nurse is caring for a client who has gestational diabetes and is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 37 weeks of gestation due to suspected fetal compromise. What is the nurse’s best response to the client’s question as to why the amniocentesis test is being done?

“To determine fetal lung maturity.”.

“To assess the degree of fetal renal function.”.

“To test the amniotic fluid glucose level.”.

“To detect the presence of fetal congenital anomalies.”.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason:
At 37 weeks, especially in gestational diabetes, fetal lungs may still be immature. Amniocentesis checks lung maturity to ensure the baby can breathe effectively if early delivery is needed due to fetal compromise.

Choice B reason:
Fetal renal function is not typically assessed through amniocentesis at term. Kidney function is monitored via ultrasound, not by analyzing amniotic fluid at 37 weeks.

Choice C reason:
Amniotic fluid glucose levels are not used to manage gestational diabetes. Maternal blood glucose is the standard for monitoring and treatment.

Choice D reason:
Congenital anomalies are usually detected earlier in pregnancy. By 37 weeks, the focus of amniocentesis is on delivery planning, not anomaly detection.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is choice B. The patient’s uterine contraction pattern is enhanced.Prostaglandin E2 gel is used to induce labor by ripening and dilating the cervix and stimulating uterine contractions.The effectiveness of the gel can be measured by the frequency, duration and intensity of the contractions.

A stronger and more regular contraction pattern indicates that the gel is working and labor is progressing.

Choice A is wrong because cervical dilation is not the only indicator of labor induction.Cervical dilation can occur without contractions or with weak and irregular contractions, which means that labor is not established yet.

Choice C is wrong because cervical softening (or effacement) is a prerequisite for cervical dilation, but it does not necessarily mean that labor has started.Cervical softening can occur weeks before labor or even during pregnancy.

Choice D is wrong because uterine softening (or relaxation) is the opposite of what prostaglandin E2 gel is supposed to do.Uterine softening reduces the contractility and tone of the uterus, which can lead to prolonged labor or fetal distress.

A. A 23-year-old primigravida with a history of endometriosis. B. A 40-year-old multigravida with a history of condyloma acuminata. C. A 27-year-old primigravida with a bicornuate uterus. D. A 36-year-old multigravida who has had two previous cesarean deliveries.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The correct answer is choice A. A 23-year-old primigravida with a history of endometriosis.Endometriosis is a condition where the tissue that normally lines the uterus grows outside of it, sometimes affecting the fallopian tubes.This can cause scarring and damage to the tubes, which can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.

Choice B is wrong because condyloma acuminata, also known as genital warts, are caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) infection.HPV infection does not directly increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy, although it may be associated with other sexually transmitted infections (STIs) that can cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), which is a risk factor.

Choice C is wrong because a bicornuate uterus is a congenital anomaly where the uterus has two horns or chambers instead of one.This does not affect the fallopian tubes or the implantation of the fertilized egg in the uterus.

Choice D is wrong because previous cesarean deliveries do not increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.However, previous tubal surgery, such as tubal ligation or salpingectomy, can damage the fallopian tubes and increase the risk.

Other risk factors for ectopic pregnancy include previous ectopic pregnancy, smoking, age older than 35 years, history of infertility, and use of assisted reproductive technology.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has gestational diabetes and is scheduled for an amniocentesis at 37 weeks of gestation due to suspected fetal compromise. What is the nurse’s best response to the client’s question as to why the amniocentesis test is being done?

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