A client is actively bleeding from esophageal varices. Which medication would the nurse most expect to be administered to this client?
Octreotide.
Propranolol.
Lactulose.
Spironolactone.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Octreotide reduces portal hypertension and bleeding in esophageal varices by constricting splanchnic blood flow. This aligns with acute variceal bleed management, making it the correct medication the nurse would expect to be administered to the actively bleeding client.
Choice B reason: Propranolol prevents variceal bleeding long-term but is not used for active bleeding. Octreotide is acute treatment, making this incorrect, as it’s inappropriate for the nurse’s expectation in managing the client’s immediate esophageal variceal hemorrhage.
Choice C reason: Lactulose treats hepatic encephalopathy, not active variceal bleeding. Octreotide controls acute hemorrhage, making this incorrect, as it’s unrelated to the nurse’s priority of administering a medication to stop the client’s esophageal variceal bleeding in the emergency.
Choice D reason: Spironolactone manages ascites in liver disease, not acute variceal bleeding. Octreotide is the treatment for active bleeding, making this incorrect, as it’s irrelevant to the nurse’s expectation for a medication to control the client’s esophageal variceal hemorrhage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Seizure precautions are relevant but secondary to establishing IV access for antihypertensive administration in hypertensive crisis. Starting an IV enables immediate treatment, making this incorrect, as it delays the critical intervention needed to lower the client’s dangerously high blood pressure.
Choice B reason: Instructing to report vision changes monitors complications but doesn’t address the urgent need to lower blood pressure. IV access facilitates medication delivery, making this incorrect, as it postpones the primary action for managing the client’s hypertensive crisis effectively.
Choice C reason: Elevating the bed may reduce intracranial pressure but is less urgent than starting an IV for antihypertensive drugs. IV access is the priority, making this incorrect, as it delays the critical intervention to manage the client’s severe hypertension in the emergency department.
Choice D reason: Starting a peripheral IV is the first action to enable rapid administration of antihypertensive medications in hypertensive crisis. This aligns with emergency care protocols for blood pressure 254/139 mm Hg, making it the correct initial step to stabilize the client’s condition.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hypercalcemia shortens the QT interval on ECG due to accelerated cardiac repolarization. This aligns with electrolyte-related cardiac monitoring, making it the correct change the nurse would recognize as indicating possible hypercalcemia in the client’s electrocardiography assessment.
Choice B reason: Inverted T waves suggest ischemia or hypokalemia, not hypercalcemia, which shortens the QT interval. This is incorrect, as it doesn’t align with the nurse’s expected ECG change for hypercalcemia compared to the characteristic shortened QT interval.
Choice C reason: Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, not hypercalcemia, which affects the QT interval. Shortened QT is correct, making this incorrect, as it’s unrelated to the nurse’s monitoring for hypercalcemia’s ECG changes in the client.
Choice D reason: Absent P waves indicate atrial fibrillation, not hypercalcemia, which shortens the QT interval. This is incorrect, as it doesn’t reflect the nurse’s anticipated ECG change for hypercalcemia, unlike the characteristic shortened QT interval in the client’s monitoring.
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