A client is actively bleeding from esophageal varices. Which medication would the nurse most expect to be administered to this client?
Octreotide.
Propranolol.
Lactulose.
Spironolactone.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Octreotide reduces portal hypertension and bleeding in esophageal varices by constricting splanchnic blood flow. This aligns with acute variceal bleed management, making it the correct medication the nurse would expect to be administered to the actively bleeding client.
Choice B reason: Propranolol prevents variceal bleeding long-term but is not used for active bleeding. Octreotide is acute treatment, making this incorrect, as it’s inappropriate for the nurse’s expectation in managing the client’s immediate esophageal variceal hemorrhage.
Choice C reason: Lactulose treats hepatic encephalopathy, not active variceal bleeding. Octreotide controls acute hemorrhage, making this incorrect, as it’s unrelated to the nurse’s priority of administering a medication to stop the client’s esophageal variceal bleeding in the emergency.
Choice D reason: Spironolactone manages ascites in liver disease, not acute variceal bleeding. Octreotide is the treatment for active bleeding, making this incorrect, as it’s irrelevant to the nurse’s expectation for a medication to control the client’s esophageal variceal hemorrhage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Providing breaths follows compressions in ACLS after defibrillation for pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Resuming compressions is immediate, making this incorrect, as it delays the nurse’s priority to restore circulation post-shock in the client’s code situation.
Choice B reason: Assessing the pulse occurs after 2 minutes of compressions, not immediately post-defibrillation. Resuming compressions is the priority, making this incorrect, as it’s premature compared to the nurse’s focus on continuing CPR in pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Choice C reason: Resuming chest compressions immediately after defibrillation maintains circulation in pulseless ventricular tachycardia per ACLS guidelines. This aligns with code management, making it the correct next step for the nurse to perform to optimize the client’s resuscitation efforts.
Choice D reason: Epinephrine is given after the second shock or per protocol, not immediately post-defibrillation. Compressions are the priority, making this incorrect, as it’s not the next step in the nurse’s ACLS sequence for managing the client’s arrhythmia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min with deep breathing is low but less concerning than 8 breaths/min with snoring, indicating potential airway obstruction. Respiratory depression is the primary opioid risk, making this incorrect compared to the more severe respiratory compromise.
Choice B reason: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min with snoring suggests severe opioid-induced respiratory depression, a life-threatening side effect requiring immediate intervention. This aligns with opioid safety monitoring, making it the correct patient most likely experiencing a critical opioid adverse effect.
Choice C reason: Elevated blood pressure and heart rate suggest pain or stress, not respiratory depression, the primary opioid danger. A low respiratory rate with snoring is more critical, making this incorrect, as it doesn’t indicate a life-threatening opioid side effect.
Choice D reason: A temperature of 100.5°F and being easily roused suggest mild fever, not respiratory depression. Snoring with a rate of 8 breaths/min is more dangerous, making this incorrect, as it doesn’t reflect a life-threatening opioid effect in the patient.
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