A client is admitted to the hospital with a traumatic brain injury after his head violently struck a brick wall during a gang fight. Which finding is most important for the nurse to assess further?
A scalp laceration oozing blood.
Dizziness, nausea, and transient confusion.
Headache rated "8" on a 0-10 scale.
Serosanguineous nasal drainage.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.
Choice B rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.
Choice C rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.
Choice D rationale: Serosanguineous nasal drainage (a mixture of blood and clear fluid) may suggest a basilar skull fracture, which is a fracture of the base of the skull that can damage vital structures such as the brainstem, cranial nerves, or major blood vessels. This can lead to serious complications such as meningitis, cerebrospinal fluid leak, or hemorrhage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Intubation and mechanical ventilation may be needed if the respiratory muscles are affected by GBS, but this is not a routine intervention at this stage.
Choice B rationale: One of the main treatments of GBS is IV immunoglobulin therapy (IVIG), which involves infusing antibodies from donated blood plasma to block the harmful immune response that damages the nerves. Sandoglobulin is one of the brand names of IVIG used for GBS. IVIG can help shorten the duration and severity of the disease, and improve the recovery rate.
Choice C rationale: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid that can reduce inflammation, but it is not recommended for GBS, as it may worsen the condition or increase the risk of infection.
Choice D rationale: NG feeding tube may be required if the patient has difficulty swallowing, but this is also not a standard intervention at this time.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is a condition that causes scar tissue to form in the penis, resulting in abnormal curvature, pain, and erectile dysfunction.
Choice B rationale: Hypospadias is a congenital defect in which the opening of the urethra is on the underside of the penis, not at the tip.
Choice C rationale: Phimosis is a condition in which the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted fully, leading to inflammation and infection.
Choice D rationale: Orchitis is an inflammation of one or both testicles, usually caused by an infection.
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