A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor.
Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?
Ketonuria.
Peripheral edema.
Hypokalemia.
Elevated blood pressure.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
Ketonuria is not a common complication of diabetes insipidus. Ketonuria is associated with diabetes mellitus, a different condition that results in the accumulation of ketones in the urine due to insufficient insulin.
Choice B rationale:
Peripheral edema is also an unlikely complication of diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive thirst and urination, not fluid retention or peripheral edema.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Systemic autoimmune vasculopathy is not a typical underlying disease pathology associated with a waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.
Choice B rationale:
Autonomic neuropathy may manifest with a variety of symptoms, including autonomic dysregulation, but it is not a common underlying pathology leading to a waddling gait and frequent falls in a child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.
Choice C rationale:
Impaired neuron function can result in various neurological symptoms, but it does not specifically explain the waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. This choice is not relevant to the symptoms described.
Choice D rationale:
Muscle fiber degeneration is the most appropriate explanation for the symptoms of a waddling gait and frequent falls in a 5-year-old child. These symptoms are indicative of a neuromuscular disorder known as Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), which involves progressive muscle weakness and degeneration. DMD is characterized by the loss of muscle fibers and is a common cause of a waddling gait and falls in affected children. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer based on the understanding of the underlying disease pathology.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Protamine sulfate is an antidote for heparin overdose and should be administered slowly intravenously to avoid rapid hemodynamic changes and potential adverse reactions.Administering it within 30 minutes ensures timely reversal of heparin’s anticoagulant effects.
Choice B rationale:
Administering protamine sulfate rapidly intramuscularly is incorrect because intramuscular administration is not recommended due to the risk of hematoma formation and slower absorption compared to intravenous administration.
Choice C rationale:
While slow intravenous administration is correct, the timing of 60 minutes is less effective compared to 30 minutes for reversing heparin’s effects promptly.
Choice D rationale:
Rapid intramuscular administration is incorrect for the same reasons as Choice B.Rapid administration can cause adverse reactions, and intramuscular administration is not the preferred route.
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