An adolescent who is brought to the emergency department (ED) with a fever and persistent lower right quadrant abdominal pain is anxious, fearful, and hyperventilating.
The nurse anticipates the client developing which acid-base imbalance?
Metabolic alkalosis.
Respiratory alkalosis.
Metabolic acidosis.
Respiratory acidosis.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B.
Choice A rationale: Metabolic alkalosis is caused by a loss of acid or a gain of base. It is not typically associated with anxiety or hyperventilation.
Choice B rationale: Respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation, which leads to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood. This can occur in response to anxiety, pain, or other stressors.
Choice C rationale: Metabolic acidosis is caused by a buildup of acid in the blood or a loss of bicarbonate. It is not typically associated with anxiety or hyperventilation.
Choice D rationale: Respiratory acidosis is caused by hypoventilation, which leads to an increase in carbon dioxide levels in the blood. It is not typically associated with anxiety or hyperventilation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury is not indicative of a developing epidural hematoma. An epidural hematoma typically manifests as a lucid interval followed by a rapid deterioration in consciousness hours after the injury.
Choice B rationale:
Cushing reflex (increased blood pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations) and cerebral edema after 24 hours are characteristic signs of a developing epidural hematoma. This occurs due to the accumulation of blood between the dura mater and the skull, leading to increased intracranial pressure.
Choice C rationale:
Headache and pupillary changes 48 hours after head injury are not specific signs of an epidural hematoma. These symptoms may indicate various other neurological conditions or complications.
Choice D rationale:
Fever, nuchal rigidity, and opisthotonos within hours are suggestive of meningitis rather than an epidural hematoma. These symptoms are not typical of epidural hematomas, which primarily involve alterations in consciousness and increased intracranial pressure.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Assigning a client who is one day postoperative for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy to the practical nurse (PN) is appropriate. This procedure is minimally invasive, and the client is likely stable, requiring routine postoperative care such as wound assessment, pain management, and monitoring for any signs of complications.
Choice B rationale:
An older client who is one day postoperative with a colostomy for colon cancer may have complex postoperative needs, including colostomy care, monitoring for complications, and pain management. This level of care is usually within the scope of the registered nurse (RN) rather than a practical nurse (PN).
Choice C rationale:
An older adult who is scheduled for foot amputation due to diabetes complications is likely to have complex care needs, including wound care, diabetes management, and potential complications. This client would require the expertise of an RN rather than a PN.
Choice D rationale:
An adult with alcoholism, cirrhosis, and hepatic encephalopathy may have complex medical and psychosocial issues that require specialized nursing care. This client's condition is not appropriate for a practical nurse (PN) to manage, and the care should be provided by an RN or other specialized healthcare provider.
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