A client is admitted with high fever of 102°F orally and an elevated WBC of 15,000. They state they have had a sinus infection and a sore throat for over 24 hours. A nurse is preparing to palpate the client's lymph nodes. At what anatomic location should the nurse position his or her hands to assess the submental lymph node?

At the base of the client's skull

At the angle of the client's jaw

Behind the tip of the client's chin

On the area behind the client's ears

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: The base of the skull houses occipital nodes, not submental ones, which drain the lower face. Palpating here misses the submental region, irrelevant to sinus or throat infections, misaligning with lymphatic drainage patterns in this case.

Choice B reason: The angle of the jaw targets submandibular nodes, not submental, which sit midline under the chin. This area drains the jaw and mouth but not specifically the submental zone tied to the client’s symptoms directly.

Choice C reason: Behind the chin tip is the submental node location, draining the lower lip, tongue, and anterior mouth. With sinus and throat infection, this spot is key for detecting lymphadenopathy linked to the client’s fever and elevated WBC.

Choice D reason: Behind the ears assesses postauricular nodes, unrelated to submental drainage of the chin and mouth. This misses the infection’s likely lymphatic response, focusing on a region not typically involved in sinus or throat pathology here.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: PSA isn’t highly reliable alone; false positives occur. It’s a screening tool, not definitive, requiring biopsy for diagnosis, making this inaccurate and less informative than explaining its broader causes for this client fully here.
Choice B reason: PSA complements, not replaces, digital rectal exam (DRE). Both detect cancer; PSA misses some tumors DRE finds, rendering this false and incomplete for teaching screening essentials to a committed client entirely here fully.
Choice C reason: Annual PSA at 25 is too early; guidelines suggest 50, or 40-45 with family history. This overstates frequency and timing, misguiding the client on evidence-based screening practices for prostate cancer risk comprehensively here.
Choice D reason: PSA rises with cancer, BPH, or infection, educating the client on its non-specificity. This accurate teaching supports informed screening with family history, clarifying why follow-up is key, making it the best response accurately here.

A. Thin, gray-white vaginal discharge B. Difficulty with urination C. Irregular bleeding with vaginal dryness D. Painless lumps in the vaginal area

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Thin, gray-white discharge suggests infection like bacterial vaginosis, not menopause. Menopause features dryness, not discharge, making this unrelated to hormonal decline, excluding it as a trigger for menopause education in this case fully here.
Choice B reason: Urinary difficulty may relate to aging or prolapse, not directly menopause. While estrogen loss can affect the urethra, it’s less specific than vaginal symptoms, rendering it secondary for menopause-focused education entirely and accurately here.
Choice C reason: Irregular bleeding and vaginal dryness are hallmark menopause signs, from estrogen drop. Perimenopause causes erratic periods, and dryness reflects atrophy, making this the key finding for targeted menopause education comprehensively and accurately here.
Choice D reason: Painless vaginal lumps suggest cysts or tumors, not menopause. These structural issues lack hormonal ties to estrogen decline, excluding them as menopause indicators needing education compared to bleeding and dryness fully here entirely.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has a family history of prostate cancer and is committed to regular screening. What should the nurse teach the client about prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood testing?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is providing a subjective data assessment for an older female. The client verbalizes a list of symptoms regarding their concern. Which findings would lead the nurse to supply education about menopause?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client comes to the clinic with complaints of intense itching to their vaginal area. Upon inspection, the nurse notes swollen labia, erythema to the vaginal mucosa with thick, white discharge. What condition might the nurse suspect?

The nurse has completed the assessment of the client's ears. A small/moderate amount of brown cerumen was found in both ears. Which action by the nurse is warranted?

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The client reports a decreased sense of smell for the past week. Which condition would the nurse assess for?