A client is being treated with interferon beta-1a and calls the clinic to report headache, fever, chills, and muscle aches after administering a dose. What will the nurse expect the provider to order?
Acetaminophen or ibuprofen
Evaluation by a physician
Discontinuing the medication immediately
Check the hemoglobin
The Correct Answer is A
The nurse would expect the provider to order acetaminophen or ibuprofen for the client. Headache, fever, chills, and muscle aches are common side effects of interferon beta-1a ¹⁴. These side effects are often referred to as flu-like symptoms and can be managed with over-the-counter pain relievers such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen ¹.
Option B is incorrect because an evaluation by a physician may not be necessary if the client is experiencing common side effects of interferon beta-1a.
Option C is incorrect because discontinuing the medication immediately may not be necessary if the client is experiencing common side effects of interferon beta-1a.
Option D is incorrect because checking the hemoglobin may not be necessary if the client is experiencing common side effects of interferon beta-1a.


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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Tolerance is a phenomenon that occurs when a person's body becomes accustomed to a medication over time. This means that the same dose of medication may no longer have the same effect as it did initially. In the case of anxiolytics, tolerance can mean that higher levels of medication are needed to achieve the expected effect. This is why
Option A refers to an increased ability to tolerate side effects, which is not the same as tolerance to the medication itself.
Option B suggests that a different medication is needed, but this is not necessarily the case when tolerance occurs.
Option C refers to greater acceptance of other people's behaviors, which is not related to tolerance to medication.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Anticholinergic medications can be used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) such as tremors and shuffling gait that can occur as side effects of first-generation antipsychotics ¹².
Option A is not correct because a direct dopamine antagonist would not be used to treat EPS.
Option B is not correct because increasing the dose of the antipsychotic medication could worsen EPS.
Option C is not correct because withholding the medication for two days could lead to a relapse of the underlying condition being treated by the antipsychotic.

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